"You did not eat the mangoes."
Translation:तूने आम नहीं खाये।
Transitive verbs (verbs which can take direct objects) conjugate with their objects in the past tense. If they don't have any direct objects in a particular sentence, they are in the masculine singular form.
Intransitive verbs (verbs which cannot take direct objects) conjugate with the subject in the past tense.
So, with a transitive verb, does its gender also agree with the direct object?
Because that would explain some sentences that have deeply confused me.
For example, if you say, "We ate an apple," do you gender the verb for the apple, as well as keeping the verb singular for the apple?
I'm a native English speaker, and so this is BLOWING MY MIND. I never thought that could be possible. Also, my rage at the last Dueling skill was entirely unjustified and I should have asked here instead of trying to learn it the hard way.
Thank you so much! I'm going to go practice that now with my newfound wisdom.
In certain tenses (simple past, present perfect etc), transitive verbs (verbs that can take direct objects) conjugate with their object(s). In these cases, you should add a 'ne' to the subject.
खाना is a transitive verb because it can take direct objects, ie, you can say 'आम खाना' where आम is a direct object of the verb. Therefore, in the simple past tense, the subject needs to have a ने.