"राज चार साल बाद दिल्ली जायेगा।"

Translation:Raj will go to Delhi after four years.

August 9, 2018

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[deactivated user]

    I've read the other comments, and therefore I think the Hindi means "4 years from now Raj will go to Delhi" - or in other words, "Raj will go to Delhi in four years".

    The actual English translation provided confused me, as it means something different to me - it means Raj has been away from Delhi for 4 years, and he is about to return. So I think my problem is with the English translation, rather than my understanding of the Hindi.


    They went with 'after' instead of 'in' because 'बाद' exclusively means at the end of the mentioned time period, it cannot suggest within 4 years


    A salient question about this example might be: Why does साल remain in singular form? I have seen/heard both: 1. चार साल (के) बाद - literally, "after 4 year"

    1. चार सालों (के) बाद - "after 4 years"

    Could somebody provide some info about this quirk in Hindi grammar and/or which is considered more "proper," etc.?


    साल is masculine and so doesn't change to सालों unless it's in oblique form.

    That said, is के actually implied in the exercise sentence? I'm still waiting for my eureka moment on some post-positions like the dreaded को and might be missing your point because of it.


    “after four years Raj will go to Delhi” was marked incorrect. After reading this discussion I understand why. We have to learn Hindi and Hinglish :)


    Could this also mean "Raj will go to Delhi in four years"? "After" would indicate that he has been away from Delhi for four years, but "in" would indicate that it will be four years from now.


    I'm not quite understanding how in/after will change the meaning in English. I don't see how 'after' indicates he has been away from Delhi any more than 'in'.


    In my dialect of English, if I say "I will go to Chicago in four weeks," it means that four weeks from now, I will go to Chicago. If I say "I will go to Chicago after four weeks," it means that I may be going to Chicago in two days, but when I get there, it will be four weeks since I left it. "After" is most often used with the present tense, e.g. "I am going to Chicago after four weeks," but it can be used with the future or the past as well.


    I still don't get what you're saying, lol :)

    But the sentence means "in four years" (in natural English). The translation of "after" is simply a literal translation of the Hindi word "ba'ad".


    Let me also try to explain the subtle difference: "I will go to X in 4 weeks" is more definite and identifies the present moment as the start of the period we are talking about; on the other hand, "I will go to X after 4 weeks" does not identify the point in time you start counting the 4 weeks from, so it could mean different things depending on the context (i.e. "...after 4 weeks {will have passed since event Y}" where Y can be the last time I was there, or any other reference).

    In "mathematical" terms: "in" defines both the duration (∆x) and the starting point (x₀), whereas "after" only defines the duration (and the starting point is understood from context).

    I hope this helps!

    P.S. I'm not a native English Speaker


    Sorry I could not clarify that for you, especially since you definitely clarified it for me. Of course, now I wonder whether there is a glottal stop in the middle of बाद.


    :-) There is the symbol for Arabic's "voiced pharyngeal approximate" in the "Urdu" spelling of बाद. If there was a direct mapping of Devanagari to Arabic one might expect to see باد (in roman, /bād/), but the actual spelling is بعد which could be transliterated as /ba'ad/. Pronunciation is the same across Hindi-Urdu, but transliteration may be different depending on whether we're thinking of Devanagari or Arabic as the source :o (Indeed, Gurmukhi/Punjabi writes ਬਾਆਦ, which would be like writing बाआद in Devanagari, i.e. /bāad/ It's a way of acknowledging that Arabic letter.). Sorry for the tangent!


    No apologies needed. That actually makes it much easier for me to remember and to see relatives in other languages.


    षुकरय Shookriya aur shookran, @RanzoG


    I understand your point. 'I will go to Delhi in four weeks' means four weeks from now I will go to Delhi. 'I will go to Delhi after four weeks' is incomplete, but means 'I will go to Delhi [now] having been out of Delhi for four weeks' or 'I will go to Delhi after four weeks [away]'. But they could mean the same thing if you complete the sentence thusly: 'I will go to Delhi after four weeks [have passed]'.


    in four years means in four years time - this is the way of indicating the action is in the future. after four years means after 4 years (of being away) in other words, he is going now after an absence of 4 years


    Here the 'after' is to imply he will be going only after the mentioned time has elapsed (4 years) and not in any case before or within the period

    To say he is returning to Delhi after 4 years the sentence should be 'राज चार साल बाद दिल्ली जा रहा है'


    Noooooooo! More weird answers to learn to get through the level!


    Definitely should be "in 4 years"


    After just sounds wrong here. It leaves me thinkng "after what?" There's something missing. He will go to bombay then come back, then go somewhere else, THEN after 4weeks will go to Delhi , i.e. not 4 weeks from now!


    Any English speaker would be taken aback by "will do" anything "after some time period". It made me stop and try to puzzle out what it means. Wouldn't "in four years" be a better translation. It seems half-translated.


    I think the duo got mad What is the need "to" in this sentence


    What is wrong with Raj will go Delhi after four years


    Wow Raj plans so far in advance, I don't even know what I'm having for dinner :'(

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