87 Comments
in a negative expression, "pas" and "plus" are alternative, so you don't use both:
je ne veux pas = I don't want to
je ne veux plus = I don't want to anymore / I no longer want to
"je ne veux pas plus..." would be an incomplete sentence: "je ne veux pas plus de pain = I don't want any more bread.
But in the latter case, "plus" is pronounced PLUSS and is not part of the negation.
Could je ne veux pas plus just mean I don't want more instead of I don't want anymore?
Yes, but then it's altogether another meaning. And the thing is:
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you'll pronounce it [pluss] as opposed to [plu] in the exercise here
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most likely, such sentence in French would use the pronoun "en" to mean "more [of it / that / them]:
Example:
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"Seulement cinq, c'est tout ?" (Only five, is that it ?")
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"Oui, c'est parfait ; je n'en veux pas plus" (Yes, that's perfect; I don't want more [of it / them])
Can this also mean "I don't want to any more"? I know there's no verb to correspond, but if you're translating without having a specific verb in mind, how do you do it?
"je ne le veux plus" (le = "that", for something mentioned before, including an action expressed with a verb)
or "je ne veux plus le faire" ("le faire" can represent another verb mentioned before)
In a dialogue, this could totally work for "I don't want to anymore".
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Allez, on joue une deuxième partie ! (Come on, let's play a second game)
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Oh non, je ne veux plus... (Oh no, I don't want to [play] anymore])
Yes, it can happen, in the flow of a conversation where what you don't want is obvious.
There was an old song: "Tu veux ou tu veux pas ? si tu veux, c'est bien, si tu veux pas tant pis, j'en ferai pas une maladie, c'est comme ci ou comme ça, ou tu veux ou tu veux pas..." (and it was about having sex!)
Not definitely. Ideally and theoretically, I don't want any more [of that] should be Je n'enveux plus.
But a French-speaker might say "Je ne veux plus [de ça]" in a conversation to mean they don't want any more of something...
Or without subtitles but with Bardot: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=nlxP5Yhg7S4
Seems to me like vouloir is transitive and so should have an object. The sentence out of context really makes no sense to me or to the French natives I have asked. At best the sentence is problematic.
With all due respect to the French natives you've asked, this sentence is totally fine.
For instance, kids typically answer that when their parents ask them to finish their meal :
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Finis ton assiette !
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Non, je ne veux plus ! (implied : je ne veux plus manger)
As stated in another post of mine, when you check if someone still wants [to do] something, they might answer that to you:
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Tu veux toujours aller à l'expo demain ? (Do you still want to go the the exhibition tomorrow?)
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Non, je ne veux plus, à vrai dire...
That answer in English should be "No, I don't want to anymore, to be honest", but I guess in conversational English someone could just say "I don't want anymore" (the to should appear, since "to want to" is a phrasal verb that demands the to when another verb follows or is implied, i.e. here go to the exhibition)
And what you say about "vouloir" being transitive and demanding an object is not totally true :
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"boire" is transitive, yet you could use it without an object ("J'ai bu toute la nuit !" = "I've drunk all night")
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it is very often used just with "bien" (a bit like "aimer"/"to love" with "aimer bien"/"to like"): "Tu peux faire ça pour moi s'il te plaît ?" (Can you do this for me please?), "OK, je veux bien" (OK, I will / I don't mind /...)
it's the most interesting answer I ever read :D (the youtube song, I mean ;) )
Thanks for the link. I enjoyed Marcel Zanini's version better than the Brigitte Bardot version.
Can anyone explain when it should be 'Je n'en veux plus' and when it's 'Je ne veux plus'?
- Veux-tu encore de la soupe ?
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Non, merci, je n'en veux plus. ("en" referring to "de la soupe")
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Veux-tu toujours aller en Espagne cet été ?
- Non, je ne veux plus (direct object: aller en Espagne...)
Thanks as always. But why are "de la soupe" and "aller en Espagne" treated differently in your example?
seems like the substance (soup) needs an "en" and the action (aller) just needs the verb
yes, that is right and I forgot that a variant exists for an action:
(aller en Espagne) -- non, je ne LE veux plus (le = the action previously described)
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If it's accepting "no longer"-type answers where the missing object is a verb, as in that Spanish example, it should accept "want to", I think. Much more natural to say that in English than "I no longer want". "Do you still want to go to Spain?"/"Are you still going to Spain?"--Non, je ne veux plus = "No, I don't want to any more" or the more formal "No, I no longer want to". (And in real life probably "Nah, I've gone off the idea"!) Great site btw :-)
Can anyone explain why it is 'I do not want to anymore', rather than 'i do not want anymore'? 'ne veux plus' translates to 'do not want anymore'. Where does the 'to' come in?
Because in English, "vouloir faire quelque chose" is "to want to do something".
And the French sentence in this exercise implies that the "thing" you don't want anymore is a verb, hence the use of "to" after "want" to imply the same in English.
We suppose that because if it was "I don't want any more of something" (an object as opposed to an action), the French version would've been "Je n'en veux plus". It's not compulsory (I can talk about food or any items and still say "Je ne veux plus" without the en) - but in that case, anyway, the English sentence should be "I don't want any more [of that/those thing/s]".
where is the to in this? I put I do not want more and cannot understand why it is wrong!
Is it that 'ne' is always necessary unless there is 'pas' meaning not or 'jamais' meaning never or 'non' when making sentences negative?
Shouldn't "I no longer want it" be an acceptable translation? Seems like Duo is being pretty picky here given that this sentence depends entirely on context for its intended meaning.
"je ne veux plus" is a set phrase short of "je ne veux plus + verb" = I no longer want to (+verb)
I no longer want it = je ne le/la veux plus, i.e. a specific thing, that can be masculine of feminine.
"Any more" was rejected but should be accepted. As an American living in England, I have learned that "anymore" is common in America but "any more" is more common in England.
[Makes note not to highlight "anymore" as a spelling error in my students' work.]
I wrote "any more" with a space but changed it because your example did not have a space. Your examples need to be corrected.
Thing is, with this French sentence, it can be both:
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Tu veux toujours aller au ciné ce soir ? (Do you still want to go to the cinema tonight ?)
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Non, je ne veux plus. (No, I don't want anymore)
So that's about "I used to want (to do) something, but now I don't want anymore".
Whereas:
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Tu veux encore des frites ? (Would you like more chips / fries ?)
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Non, je ne veux plus, merci. (No, I don't want any more, thanks).
That's about "I had enough of something, now I don't want any more of it".
Actually, that second option should state in French "Je n'en veux plus", which would be in English "I don't want any more of it". But just like you can drop and simply imply the "of it", you're not compelled to use the "en" in French, especially in oral French.
In the first option though, you cannot use "en", since the "ne...plus /not...anymore" is strictly on the verb "want", and not on a certain quantity of something which you don't want more of.
I was marked wrong for "I do not want anymore." Why is "to" included in the translation? Then I checked with Reverso, and they translated the sentence as I did. What gives? Also, I know this is A REPEAT question, but I really don't understand the answers thus far. Can someone concisely and clearly explain it?
I copy/paste one of my previous comments since it doesn't seem easy to find the answer by reading through :
The verb "to want" is built with "to" when another verb follows : "I want something" BUT "I want to do something".
Even when that following verb is implied (in a conversation, you may not repeat it), you should still use the "to". This is the case here, as the French sentence suggests. It's clearer with other examples of verbs built with the postposition "to" : let's take "to be going to [do something]" and "to have to [do something]".
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Are you still going to work on that project today?
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No, I'm not going to (anymore).
or
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Do I have to write my name again?
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No, you don't have to (anymore).
In both those examples, I guess it is obvious that you wouldn't pronounce those sentences without that "to". Same goes for "to want to".
ElGusso, thanks! Dawn breaks over Beachyhead. (translate: Finally, I get it!) thanks, again!
Did anyone else find that they could hardly hear the "v" when it was said aloud? I had no idea...
I thought plus was pronounced with the s when the word was at the end of a sentence?
Nope.
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"plus" pronounced [pluss] = more (or, depending on the use, "plus", as in "two plus two equal four")
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"plus" pronounced [plu] = no more, not anymore, no longer
I appreciate your confidence, but usage is a little more complicated than your black and white response.
Plus as a comparative or superlative adverb is the exception to the above rules. When the comparative or superlative plus is in the middle of a sentence, it is pronounced [ploo], unless it precedes a vowel, in which case the liaison causes it to be pronounced [plooz]. When plus is at the end of a sentence, as in the final example, it is pronounced [ploos].
So I guess I just answered my own question. The example "je ne veux plus" is not being used as a comparative or superlative, but as a negative, so those usage rules apply when at the end of a sentence, I guess.
Uh... I am not sure I understood everything you meant.
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first [ploo] and [plooz] are misleading "phonetic" transcriptions, as [oo] refers either to a sound as in "cool" or "moulin", or to a long "O" for some other speakers (e.g. Dutch). I am very positive about this : it is in any case a [u] which in international phonetics is /y/
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of course, and I'm sorry about this, I was talking about the word "plus" used alone, i.e. as opposed to used in a comparative / superlative structure. But the initial question was about at the end of a sentence, and well... a comparative or superlative does not end with a "plus" !
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examples about comparative (more than) / superlative (the most) : "Je suis plus grand que toi" (I am taller than you), here "plus" is pronounced [plu] ; but in "Je suis plus âgé que toi" (I am older than you), "plus" is pronounced [pluz] because of the following vowel, as you mentioned very well. Same for "Je suis le plus [plu] grand / Je suis le plus [pluz] âgé" (the tallest / the oldest).
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but I disagree with the "at the end of a sentence" rule you mention, if I understood it correctly : it will be pronounced [pluss] if it means "more", and [plu] if it means not any more.
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examples : "J'en veux plus!" = I want (some) more (of it). Here it must be pronounced [pluss]. Whereas : "Je n'en veux plus" = I don't want any more (of it) ; here it must be pronounced without the -s [plu].
Thank you for your thoughtful response. The "end of the sentence" rule I found while researching online at: http://french.about.com/library/weekly/aa101300v.htm. As for the phonetics, I agree with you that international phonetics are better. The convention used in the article was the one I used to make the point.
I don't know/think that many people may know a phonetic alphabet. Also, some devices cannot write some symbols, even ß, i.e.
So, I too have always used that kind of more simple notation.
As “ny“ for “gn“ or “ ñ “ in Spanish. I wouldn't have thought it could be interpreted as “noo“... Sorry to trouble... :·|
Not necessarily:
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Would you like some more tea?
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No thanks, I don't want any more = Je n'en veux plus
But:
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Let's play another game!
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Oh no, I don't want [to play] anymore = Oh non, je ne veux plus [jouer].
In cases like this, when you use NE PLUS (meaning anymore), you shouldn't put the pas. It's a special negation.
I just have to say that in English "anymore" is different than "any more". How would one say "I don't want (it) anymore". ?
Yes, you're right, I have already explained that on posts here.
But to answer your question, "Je ne veux plus" is - to me and out of context - "I don't want to anymore" rather than "I don't want any more".
As explained in more detail above, "I don't want any more (of something)" would rather be in French "Je n'en veux plus": the "en" in French is sort of equivalent to the "any" which is emphasized by standing alone, and not in one word with "more".
"Anymore" generally applies its effect on the verb (I do not want anymore, the desire is gone), whereas "any more" is about the object which you have had enough of (I do not want any more of this whatever).
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Are we still going to the exhibition tomorrow? = On va toujours à l'expo demain ?
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I don't want to anymore... = Je ne veux plus (or rather, in natural, common French: "Je n'ai plus envie", i.e. I don't feel like it anymore)
whereas:
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Another piece of cake? = Une autre part de gâteau ?
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Thanks, but I don't want any more = Merci, mais je n'en veux plus.
also, that tricky and oft used by french speakers but not french students, "en"
The answer is "I don't want to more. " What does that even mean? I live in America and speak English. This makes no sense.
"I do not want more" should be added to the list of correct answers. This is equivalent to "I do not want any more."
They're not really equivalent.
The results are the same, but grammatically:
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"I don't want anymore" = no more "wanting", the "not...more" applies to the verb
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"I don't want more" = no more of "that something which is implied", the "not ...more" applies to the object. Maybe I just want less/fewer...
It's clearer if you take another verb, e.g. "I can't see anymore" (you turned blind) vs "I can't see more" (you've had enough).
How to say, i don't want more? Also, i don't want anymore and i don't want to anymore; do they translate differently?
Are you sure you read the whole thread?
- I don't want more = je n'en veux pas plus (I've had enough)
- I don't want anymore = je ne veux plus (I wanted to, but I changed my mind)
- I don't want to anymore / I no longer want to = je ne veux plus le... faire/dire/manger... any verb fitting the previous context. Or simply: je ne (le) veux plus (with "le" optional and representing a previously described action).
I do not want TO anymore
how is that TO posible....i think is not correct
Because the verb "to want" is built with the postposition "to" when a verb follows:
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I want holidays
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I want to go on holiday
That "to" needs to be there even if the following verb is implied (like in this exercise, "I don't want to anymore" is actually maybe "I don't want to sleep / work / etc. anymore").
You can see that more easily with the phrase "to be going to" (to express future tense).
- I'm going to help you.
Imagine someone asks:
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You're still going to help me today, right ?
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No, I'm not going to anymore.
If you just said "I'm not going anymore", you would change the meaning of the sentence (i.e. "I'm not leaving anymore"). Therefore, that "to" needs to be there, even with "want", because they go together (hence the name "postposition" as its presence after the verb is necessary).
Thanks for explanation about the pronouncing 'plus' and when it sounds like 'pluss'. I had found this confusing
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in the fast voice he says plu, and in the slow he says pluss, actually plussuh. Which is it, in this context?
I get that "I do not want to anymore" is "Je ne veux plus." But if I want to say "I do not want anymore?" For example in response to a question such as "Would you like more wine?" Would it be "Je ne le veux plus", which i think is technically, "I don't want it anymore"?
In oral, conversational French you could perfectly say:
- Tu veux encore du vin ?
- Non merci, je ne veux plus
Now a more accurate translation to "I don't want any more [wine]" - and, again, I believe it should be "any more" in two words - would be:
- Non merci, je n'en veux plus
I have just installed the android version which works well. However the correct translation given in the exercise is different to the correct translation on this page. :(
There are too many comments and I couldn't find an answer to my question, so I'm sorry if it was already asked. Why is it "I don't want to anymore" and not "I don't want it/this/something anymore"? I'm not a native english speaker (Duolingo isn't very complete in my language), so maybe I'm missing something, but when I hear "I don't want to anymore" it seems I don't want to perform some action anymore. The french sentence has no indication of whether that which is unwanted is a thing or an action.
May I suggest that if you want to say 'I do not want any more of IT' you need to indicate the 'it' part in the sentence. You can think of it as I OF IT do not want anymore, which would be Je n'en veux plus.
this is ridiculous, says "I do not want any more" above but fails "I do not want anymore" saying "I do not want to anymore"
