"I have bread, and you have salt."
Translation:Já mám chléb a ty máš sůl.
mám chléb a ty sůl is the right answer, i wrote mám chléb, a máš sůl. Is this wrong. Why do i need to use ty and why can i write you have salt, just with ty sul ?
Because you are contrasting You and I, Ty a Já. So the ty needs to be there.
Why can you just say a ty sůl? Because the verb is the same so it can be elided in the second clause. In the other direction "I have (the) bread and you (the) salt." is accepted for the same reason.
Would you mind clarifying more clearly why "mám chléb, a máš sůl" is an incorrect translation of "I have bread, and you have salt"? While "mám" implies that I have it, doesn't "máš" equally much imply that you have it? I don't see the need for an extra "ty".
Okay, I think the reason is you can leave out the "Ja" for mam, but mas needs the ty in front for the pronoun. VladFu is that correct?
I'm sorry, this still makes no sense to me. Can you be clearer? If the subject is determined by the verb person and number (it's not implied, it's right there in the verb), why do I have to use the pronouns? And how will I know when I have to use them? There must be a rule.
You need to use the pronoun when it is stressed (emphasized), when it is part of the message the sentence delivers.
No, the don't have to be rules for everything in natural languages, this is not mathematics.