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  5. "Měl problémy s oběma koleny?"

"Měl problémy s oběma koleny?"

Translation:Did he have problems with both knees?

August 17, 2018

6 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/OlesDrow

Emm... He HAVE? Not Has?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/LukasBlech

No. It is a question with the "did".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BoneheadBass

In English, it is "he has" in a statement in the present tense. In a statement about the past, it would be "he had." But in a question about the past, it becomes "did he have."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BoneheadBass

The Czech verb is in the past tense (MĚL). "Have" is appropriate in the translation.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/LukasBlech

Add "Did he have problems with his both knees".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BoneheadBass

Nope, that one doesn't work. But "both his knees" and "both of his knees" are accepted.

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