"Měl problémy s oběma koleny?"

Translation: Did he have problems with both knees?

[OlesDrow]

Emm... He HAVE? Not Has?

[LukasBlech]

No. It is a question with the "did".

[BoneheadBass]

In English, it is "he has" in a statement in the present tense. In a statement about the past, it would be "he had." But in a question about the past, it becomes "did he have."

[BoneheadBass]

The Czech verb is in the past tense (MĚL). "Have" is appropriate in the translation.

[LukasBlech]

Add "Did he have problems with his both knees".

[BoneheadBass]

Nope, that one doesn't work. But "both his knees" and "both of his knees" are accepted.