Only when the next word begins with a vowel sound (including those with a mute "H"), like Les hommes (the men) sounds like lay-z-ohm, or Les amis (the friends) sounds like lay-z-amee
S is pronounced /z/ generally in french if it is followed by a vowel , and if it is followed by a consonant it will be silent *e.g. --> 1- les hommes= /lehz ommez/ . 2- les femme = / leh femme/
how can you tell it says les and hommes instead of le and homme, i can never hear the difference.
Because "le homme" doesn't exist. In french the contractions are MANDATORY, not optional.
Since "homme" starts with a vowel sound, because the H is mute, you have to make the contraction, so it becomes "l'homme" (sounds like Lohm). And the plural makes the liason (linking) of the final S in "les" so it sounds like "Lehsom".
..Singural L'homme (Lohm)
......Plural Les hommes (lehsom)
Yes of course, because it has no link with the gender, only with the fact where's too vowels following each other. La femme = exists, La orange= doesn't exist, say "l'orange. Le chat = exists, Le homme = doesn't exist, say "l'homme". The rule is easy.
Les is pronounced leh Or liz (if) followed by a vowel/// le in pronounced lo
when do adjectives come after the noun, like "Les hommes riches," as opposed to "Tu es un bon garcon" where the adjective comes before?
Only adjectives describing beauty, age, number, goodness or size go before the noun. All the rest come after.
PS : I read this in another thread.
You're right, and the fun part about French, is when it's allowed to place the adjective before the noun, you can play the place of the adjective to emphasize something. Ex: la jolie fille, la fille jolie (the pretty girl)
Because in French the adjective goes after the noun, the opposite of English. There are some exceptions but generally it's that way.
Because there's no verb, it's a nominal group. Don't put a verb in a sentence where it is not, you will always get wrong.
Because there is no verb in the sentence. Les + Homme + Riches = The rich men.
Les hommes riches the wealthy men or the rich men i dont get that there can be 2 translations in one sentence
Phrases can have more than one meaning, example:
"She blew a seal"
Meaning one: she was driving her car and a seal broke causing an oil leak.
Meaning two: she stimulated the privates of a member of the SEAL army with her mouth.
Meaning three: similar to meaning two but this time with bestiality.
As far I learnt French @ duolingo, the statement "The men are rich." in french is "Les hommes sont riches." and "The rich men" is "Les hommes riches".
No, even if nouns are caused by the filiation with latin, the languages had their own history afterwards.
When I clicked on the audio for slower speech there was no consonant sound between Les and hommes. What gives?
Both mean "the" but L' comes before a singular masculine noun that starts with a vowel sound. Les comes before a plural masculine noun.
If I may clarify something, if the objects are plural, then the adjectives become plural too? Like for a man it would be riche, but for men it would be riches? Is that it? I saw the explanation that it would also be gender based, so what will "the rich women" be then?
i get confused when its les hommes riche and i think it goes like the men are rich. because you know mange or manges it means 2 words and i thought it might go like the same as les hommes riche.
its hard to understand when it says les and le also when its hommes and homme
i wrote they are rich and have correct answer and the rich men and had olso correct ??