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"Nosotros vamos a asumir que ella comió."

Translation:We are going to assume that she ate.

March 30, 2013



we will assume she ate is perfectly good spoken English. The "that " is optional


So far as I know, the "that", which is optional in English, is required in Spanish.


I have to agree, the translation without the word "that" is perfectly acceptable as an English phrase. In addition, the word that or the Spanish translation (esa, ese, etc.) is not found in the listed sentence. Or maybe I'm just bitter because I got it wrong lol..


English uses "that" in many different contexts. Spanish uses "ese/eso/esa/aquel/aquella" for pronouns, "ese/esa/aquel/aquella" for adjectives, and "que" for most of the other cases where English uses "that". This sentence is one of the latter.


Excellent, thanks for explanation.


Why is the translation - 'she has eaten' not correct?


The end of the sentence would have to be "ella ha comido" for "she has eaten." Though your meaning is understood in English, the grammar structure is not the same for "she ate" vs. "she has eaten".


Good to know, gracias. This tends to get me about half the time.


I agree with cghoyt, but I think "We are going to assume that she has eaten" is better English. I frequently wonder whether such sentences that sound slightly odd in English are also slightly odd in Spanish (and just an artifact of the machine process), or do Spanish verb tenses work differently than English ones.

On the other hand, if the act of eating were more specific, it would be natural to say, "I am going to assume that she ate the candies."


The present perfect (ie. 'she has eaten') is probably more correct in English than the simple past as it covers the past and the present as the whole sentence implies. However I have no idea when the Spanish use the Pres Perf. instead of the preterite.


Patrick is coming to the point here. Different languages use the grammatical studies in different ways. Where one uses imperfect/simple past in Spanish is not the same as in English (or French or German). "has eaten" is the more accurate and correct English translation if this particular sentence, even though it uses a different grammatical structure.


What's wrong with what she ate


Are you asking what's wrong with "We are going to assume what she ate" ? I could be wrong but this is what I think: In this sentence "que" is a relative pronoun ("that", or in a different context, "which"). For my interpretation of your sentence, the Spanish would be "Nosotros vamos a asumir lo que ella comió" ( literally ..."that which she ate"). (When I entered this into google translate, it returned "We are going to take what she ate.")


i agree with her because 'lo' could be translated as 'it' not 'which' it's your translation is too long and i think her sentence is true but it has been marked wrong by Duo


According to the Royal Spanish Academy (la Real Academia Espanola) here are the accepted definitions of the verb "asumir" 1. tr. Atraer a sí, tomar para sí. 2. tr. Hacerse cargo, responsabilizarse de algo, aceptarlo. 3. tr. Adquirir, tomar una forma mayor. While it would include the English version of the word "assume", as in "He assumed the throne", it would not include the mental activity of taking something in account, or previous knowledge, just as "He assumed that I knew his name" or "I assumed that she had already eaten". If I am wrong, please correct me. But that's the way I learned use of this verb in particular.


Interestingly SpanichDict shows both meanings, especially in Latin America. Which might suggest that American usage has influenced the word meaning.



In previous examples they don't accept "we are going to" in place of "we will", so I figured we were being taught the difference. A bit of consistency would be good.


Consistency? What's that? :>)


Report those. The constructions are always interchangeable in English


I wish you could understand the person reading Nosotros versus Nosotras a little better. It gets me all the time.


I used to complain about 'her diction'. Then realized DL must use 'canned speech', because if you go to google translate and listen, you will hear the same lady. HA


I think there is a problem. I gave this translation, in addition to "we will assume that she ate." In this box, the above translation is correct. On the test, my phrased answer is correct. Which one is correct and why?


They're both acceptable because "We're going to assume" and "We will assume" mean essentially the same thing in English, and so do the Spanish equivalents ("vamos a asumir" and "asumiremos").


I suppose you can't use eso in place of que?


No, never. Even though we usually use "that" for both in English, in Spanish "que" and "eso/esa/ese" have two entirely different meanings.


In this sentence, que is "that" as a conjunction: "We are going to assume that she ate." Eso/esa/ese are used both in the sense of an adjective, such as "She ate that apple", and as a pronoun, as in "She ate that" (with whatever "that" was usually mentioned before or afterwards).

Duolingo, this is what you've dragged me down to: Looking up the word "that" in an English dictionary!


The app cut off the rest of my post (and I can't edit it from here): Of course I'm kidding, I'm happy to help! :)

(Note to self: Not all apps trust emojis XP)


'Presume' not accepted! Yet, according to Wordsmyth.net, assume and presume are synonyms.


anyone else translate the ending as "she ate me?"


This seems like it would be subjunctive, because when you're assuming "that she ate", that's not a certain thing. Instead it is a supposition, which I thought is what the subjunctive tense is used for. So I would think that even though "asumir" does not need any conjugation because it would stay in the infinitive, comió (preterite, él/ella/usted) should instead be comiera (subjunctive imperfect, él/ella/usted). Can anyone help me with this?


Why was it not accepted: "we will assume she ate"?


Is " We are going to assume that she was eating" wrong ?


The word "that" is not necessary in English. So, a perfectly acceptable translation is "We are going to assume she ate."


Most english speakers would say "we are going to assume she has eaten"


When parents give up on trying to make their kids eat


has eaten and ate means the same thing why is it wrong?


Did you just assume?

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