"She eats meat."
Translation:Elle mange de la viande.
why should it be "elle mange de la viande" but not just "elle mange la viande" or "elle mange du viande"?
"du viande "cannot work since "viande" is feminine.
"de la viande" means "some meat", which is coherent with "she eats meat".
"elle mange la viande" = "she eats THE meat".
Before I had the sentence "I eat soup" and translated it with "je mange de la soupe" and it was wrong (right answer: "Je mange la soupe"). But why is it right in this case? Isn't it the same, only with an other noun? It doesn't make sense to me :P
The thing is, I read the sentence as "She eats meat (in general)" and not some meat or some specific meat. Basically that she is not a vegetarian. That would be the most obvious inference in English in the absence of any additional context.
With that in mind, is the "de" still necessary for that translation?
With verb "manger" you cannot avoid the partitive form with its uncountable objects.
A generality would be: "meat costs a lot nowadays" = "la viande coûte cher de nos jours"
she is eating some meat not eating the meat and meat is feminine not masculine
In French, articles are most of the time necessary to introduce a noun.
Here, "she eats meat" means "she eats some meat", like a portion of meat or a piece of meat...
The French translation for such a meaning (called "partitive") is built with preposition "de" + definite article: elle mange DE LA viande.
is "de" only used for the feminine gender? I have tried the masculine and it is always wrong.
"du poulet" means "some chicken", it is masculine and du is a contraction of de+le "de la viande" means "some meat", it is feminine