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"Quizás ella no tenga que ir."

Translation:Perhaps she won't have to go.

0
5 years ago

33 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/ajabrams

perhaps she does not have to go should also be correct here. I checked 4 different translators and all gave that translation and NONE gave "will have to go"

66
Reply25 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ph516503
ph516503
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i agree, tenga is present tense... "she will not have to go" is future I think...

13
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/kkayda
kkayda
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Actually, tenga is the subjunctive tense, triggered by "quizas", showing uncertainty over an outcome

28
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/an3stis
an3stis
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Yes, the subjunctive in spanish just like in ancient greek and latin can denote a future action

6
Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/anamalena
anamalena
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Yes, absolutely true.

6
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jjcthorpe

BUT i have seen that the present tense in Spanish IS sometimes used for future events ie tomorrow I (will) clean the bathroom = manana yo limpio el bano.... just like in english sometimes we say these things like a declaration ie "Tomorrow...I clean the bathroom!", so maybe the present tense "tengas" IS correct in this case....Also, I don't think the future subjunctive is used in spanish (anymore?) so maybe it has to be subjunctive tense because of the "quizas" and therefore subjunctive present tense HAS to be used here....

6
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Uro95
Uro95
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I agree with you aj

1
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/joris.ev

still not accepted, 30th of september 2014

1
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jjcthorpe

BUT i have seen that the present tense in Spanish IS sometimes used for future events ie tomorrow I (will) clean the bathroom = manana yo limpio el bano.... just like in english sometimes we say these things like a declaration ie "Tomorrow...I clean the bathroom!", so maybe the present tense "tengas" IS correct in this case....Also, I don't think the future subjunctive is used in spanish (anymore?) so maybe it has to be subjunctive tense because of the "quizas" and therefore subjunctive present tense HAS to be used here....

4
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/friend050

29-Nov-2014 ... present tense translation still not accepted. I wonder if they'll ever fix this ...

1
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Iago
Iago
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It's tricky here because the subjunctive is used, so "doesn't have to go" isn't the best translation.

0
Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JamesB84
JamesB84
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Yes, but quizás is used which means that it is "timey whimey" subjunctive and might not happen depending on certain unforeseen circumstances.

3
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/shemp
shemp
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I agree with Ajabrams, going to report it...

4
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/crazy_fizruk
crazy_fizruk
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Is "She may not have to go" incorrect here?

3
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/GigiGottwald
GigiGottwald
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I also tried "may" because it seemed to express the subjunctive element of the sentence so much better than the indicative, categorical "she won't have to go". Can someone explain to crazy and me what is wrong with it?

1
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/t.winkler
t.winkler
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¿Qué es la diferencia entre quizá y quizás?

3
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/kkayda
kkayda
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I believe there is no difference in meaning between the two. However, we use quizas before a word starting with a vowel sound and quiza everywhere else.

5
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/alejandrocarmo

Really there is no difference, but as Spanish-speaking, I like say Quizá when is for the first o third person of singular.

But is the same.

3
Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Chrome113
Chrome113
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There is no difference, but I believe that "quizás" is more commonly used. It is like "afterward" and "afterwards" in English.

2
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/shemp
shemp
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Quizas=perhaps después= afterwards

0
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Samsta
Samsta
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What Chrome113 meant was that the difference between "quizá" and "quizás" is similar to the difference between "afterward" and "afterwards"—there is none. The same thing happens with "toward" and "towards". They mean the exact same thing, whether or not you include the "s".

6
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/shemp
shemp
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You are correct, I misinterpreted his comment when I first saw it.

2
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/cecilykohler

What about: perhaps she mustn't go. It seems correct to me.

1
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Rob2042

"Maybe she does not have to go." is what I put. Not accepted but reported.

1
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Zorro-Plateado

'maybe she does not have to go' Was accepted 21/2/2015

2
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/TheReal_Nadia

I put "Maybe she can't go." Is that incorrect?

1
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/kkayda
kkayda
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Poder usually translates as being able to, can as well as may (as in being possible). Tener que usually translates as have to, must

1
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/yael8376

How do we know it is in future time?

1
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Uro95
Uro95
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If you do reverse translation,i.e from English to Spanish you'd think you'd use tendré instead of tenga! I think both should be accepted.i personally think present is better than future,depending on how imminent is the verb going is,nowadays or in the distant future

0
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/stocker65

Perhaps she must not go is not acceptable to DL but I do not know why

0
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DeniseIvan

Ommmg im so confused now.

0
Reply11 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/IanPratt12
IanPratt12
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Why not must not go?

0
Reply3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/NTWqBX0y

The correct answer was given as "perhaps she will not have to go'" Why is the answer "will not" and not "would not"?

0
Reply1 month ago