Translation:Afterwards she never had to work any more.
'Then she never had to work any more.' 'Then' and 'Afterwards' both have the sense that something has happened, and something else happened as a result. I would suggest the difference is stylistic rather then semantic or grammatical. For example, 'afterwards' has a more storytelling feel.
The only reading I can get for your word order is "any more work", as in "there was no work left", but AFAIK, už can only mean "anymore" in the sense of "from that time onwards", and for this native English speaker, at least, that sense of "anymore" has to come at the end of the sentence, after the object.
I'm a Brit. My source is....me. I have worked professionally as an editor. I'd be interested to know what other British English speakers think. So in British English I would say: "She won the lottery. She never had to work again." And in this situation, tell me what you would say, brjaga. I know there are considerable differences between American and British English.
Native US English, speaker here. I agree with ruthgrace00, "She never had to work again" definitely seems to be the most appropriate "liberal" translation. I understand that the course designers wanted to emphasize the literal aspects of the translation, but I do think the inclusion of "never" and "any more" in the same sentence should not be preferred.