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  5. "Potom už nikdy pracovat nemu…

"Potom nikdy pracovat nemusela."

Translation:Afterwards she never had to work any more.

October 1, 2018

19 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/folshost

The usage of "any more" here in the English seems redundant


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BoneheadBass

I believe that "any more" is included in the translation to take account of in the Czech sentence.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/brjaga
  • 2398

I can't explain why, but to me it feels like it actually sounds more natural with "any more" (or "anymore", honestly not sure which makes more sense here)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/loudastepan

Proc je prosím špatně: after that she didn't have to work anymore?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BoneheadBass

On the English side, that works fine, and there are several reports using "did not." But since I'm not a native Czech speaker, I can't say why it's not among the accepted translations.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/VladaFu

It is probably missing the translation for "nikdy".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BoneheadBass

Ah -- good point. "Did not ever..." might work in some of the accepted translation groups, but it could be awkward in others. But I can add some, if you think it makes sense to do so.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/VladaFu

Probably yes.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/CaroleDiva1

'Then she never had to work any more.' 'Then' and 'Afterwards' both have the sense that something has happened, and something else happened as a result. I would suggest the difference is stylistic rather then semantic or grammatical. For example, 'afterwards' has a more storytelling feel.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BoneheadBass

There are many accepted translations that use "then."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Dlehrke

Afterwards she never had anymore work. Anything wrong with this? I reported it.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/brjaga
  • 2398

The only reading I can get for your word order is "any more work", as in "there was no work left", but AFAIK, can only mean "anymore" in the sense of "from that time onwards", and for this native English speaker, at least, that sense of "anymore" has to come at the end of the sentence, after the object.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ruthgrace00

This isn't good English. "She never had to work again" or "She didn't have to work any more" both make sense but we just don't put 'never'and 'any more' in the same sentence.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/brjaga
  • 2398

I'm not sure what the linguistic standard is (do you have a source?), but at least in my dialect of American English, "She never had to work any more" sounds fine and possible more natural than the alternative


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ruthgrace00

I'm a Brit. My source is....me. I have worked professionally as an editor. I'd be interested to know what other British English speakers think. So in British English I would say: "She won the lottery. She never had to work again." And in this situation, tell me what you would say, brjaga. I know there are considerable differences between American and British English.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/brjaga
  • 2398

"She never had to work again" sounds fine to me, and so does "She never had to work any more". I think the second sounds a little more natural, but neither sounds wrong.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/folshost

Native US English, speaker here. I agree with ruthgrace00, "She never had to work again" definitely seems to be the most appropriate "liberal" translation. I understand that the course designers wanted to emphasize the literal aspects of the translation, but I do think the inclusion of "never" and "any more" in the same sentence should not be preferred.

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