I still don't get the thing which teoinke had asked. I understand that "a ellos" is used just to remove ambiguity of "you" or "them" caused by "les" and "a ellos" is optional if there is no ambiguity. Cool ! But the thing is why would I even ever need to use "les" ? Can't i directly write "Él escribe una carta a ellos?" It is non ambiguous and clearly explains with no confusion that " He writes a letter to them". Help please ?!
Unfortunately that is how Spanish works, when a verb ends in 'a' or 'e' it could be talking about he/she/it/you(formal), and is never really specific enough like in English. A great tool to use in conjunction with DL is the Spanish audiobooks by Michel Thomas, he really helps to explain a lot of this stuff and how to wrap your head around it. I have found DL much easier after listening to those Spanish audiobooks
Thanks will listen to those !
Just a help, in case you guys are okay with piracy :) https://kat.cr/learn-spanish-fast-easy-with-michel-thomas-audio-book-t5553830.html#main
'les' is the indirect object pronoun that translates as the phrase 'to them' or 'to you (plural)', and is supposed to come in front of the verb. The 'a ellos' (them) is put at the end, to clarify whether the book is being written to 'them' or to 'you (plural)'. Or, at least that is my understanding!
I'm glad that we don't lose lingots with mistakes during the lesson... trying to figure out these pronouns is tough!
And that is it in a nutshell.
Les can't be dropped; a ellos can be, if it's not needed to disambiguate -- really a clarification of "them" refered to by les.
Per this lesson: The book is a direct object here; them (les) is the indirect object to whom the book is written. Hope that is correct...
Thanks to those who actually know explaining for those who, like me, were quite confused.
The usage of "a ellos" is optional, people put "a usted, a ustedes, a mi, a ti" at the end to clarify who is being spoken to. Some times it can be confusing to who the speaker is talking to, "Les" can me you or them, so the speaker wanted to clarify that the teacher was writing the book to them, "a ellos" and not you(plural). Remember you don't have always use "a _" if it's already establish who is being talked about.
Yep. The indirect object can be the recipient or beneficiary of the action of the verb. If the indirect object fills a recipient role, we would translate the pronoun to english as being to someone or something. But in this case the pronoun fills the role of a beneficiary, so we translate it as being for someone.
Not quite only. There's three other cases to consider where
¤ To express a time, where it would translate to at or is
¤ To indicate motion towards, where it translates to to
¤ To connect a conjugated verb to an infinitive, where it doesn't translate at all to english.
It's an issue with English, not Spanish. In English "He writes a book to them" and "He writes them a book" mean the same thing, the "to" is omitted and you can never say "He writes to them a book". Spanish is more consistent in that any translation would use "les" (to them).
Okay, first ignore the "a ellos". "les" can mean: to you (formal or plural) or to them. So the sentence is:
Él (He) les (to them) escribe (writes) un libro (a book).
So what about the "a ellos" you say? Well it's another way to write "to them" (a = to and ellos = them) but it's optional and it can never replace the "les", it only serves to add emphasis or clarification In this case it confirms that "les" means "to them" and not "to you".
I wrote " He writes them a book" they said it had to be "one book" This time the same sentence. I put "He writes them one book" and they say it is wrong. Then they use the sentence again. they say that "un" does not mean one specifically, now it means "a book". It really is time for duo to start editing these things. There are so many volunteers out there and they never call on any of them and they never fix. Such a good plat form going to waste.