Does Nuestro[a] get changed by the possessed item (in this case friends) or by the gender of the owners?
By the possessed item. It functions like any other adjective in this sense.
I'm a bit unsure about how the possessive would apply in case of multiple possession.
I'm also kind of crappy at actual grammar rules so bare with me please.
Nuestros amigos escriben libros. Our friends write books.
The possesive here is "friends" correct? And since friends is amigos and amigo is masculine, you get nuestros (our, plural possessive).
BUT what if you're talking about two separate possessives that have 2 different genders? Like say "our friends eat our strawberries" friends would be amigos and strawberries would be fresas. One masculine, one feminine. Both possessive, correct?
So would it be
Nuestros amigos comemos nuestras fresas? That would seem easy enough and rather intuitive.
so is that the case? each separate Nuestro/nuestra nuestros/nuestras changes according to each object that IT is directly applied to in a sentence?
"Our friends eat our apples and our rice in our house" translate to
"Nuestros amigos comemos nuestras manzanas y nuestros arroz en nuestra casa"?
Damn that's a mouthful!
hucklebeary- You made a mistake with the last sentence. Here's the correction : Nuestros amigos COMEN (THIRD PERSON PLURAL, THEY) nuestras manzanas y NUESTRO arroz en nuestra casa.
Couple of rhymes so far: "Nuestros amigos escriben libros Nuestro gato come pescado"
No "our friends are writing books" would be present continuous tense. The sentence is in present simple tense
how is this different from other simple present verbs which are allowed to be "are doing" instead of "do"?
Can you give me any example of any simple present verb which has been allowed to "are doing"?
As a new learner, almost every lesson so far has allowed the continuous as a translation.
There are many examples where Duo is (absolutely correctly) now accepting the progressive present (am/is/are .....-ing) when it previously did not. You are mistaken Ankit thinking it is not a possible translation of the simple present in Spanish. eg escribo means I read and the progressive forms of I am reading and I do read. The latter is obvious when a negation is required - no escribo - I do not read in modern English. Or I am not reading. Similarly with questions ¿escribe? = do you read OR are you reading? You are thinking of a construction with a more restricted meaning.
All of them have so far accepted either. "Voy + inf." is a common phrase that means "I am going to X" also
I don't think so the continuous should be correct because then it would be written in a totally different way for it to be correct.
I'm going to second what Johngt44 said. Even if both languages have continous and simple tenses, English is rather strange in that for dynamic verbs (runs, walk, do, write, read, eat) the simple presence actually gives information about habitual behavior (I walk my dog every morning, or I write books). The sentence "I write books" actually tends to imply that the person speaking IS NOT writing a book at this exact moment, because if they were, they'd probably say "I am writing a book." And almost no one would ever say "I write a book" unless they were using a very specific construction.
So the big question is, does Spanish have the exact same relationship between simple present and present continuous as English does? If so, then AnkitSpanish is write. That would mean this sentence means "On a regular basis, our friends write books." If this sentence means "Right now, our friends are currently writing books" then the present continuous must be accepted.