"My daughter's name is Sofía."
Translation:Mi hija se llama Sofía.
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I didn't think about this too much before responding "el nombre de mi hija es sofia" and this was marked correct although an alternative approach was given as "Mi hija se llama Sofía." Is my version actually correct?
Either "mi hija se llama" or "el nombre de mi hija es", but you can't mix them. "mi hija se llama" literally means "my daughter calls herself". There is no place for an additional "es" in that sentence.
Llamar (verb) = to call. Yo llamo / tu llamas / el llama; Nombre (noun, masculine) = name
Yes, it is. Nombre translates to name and llama translates to I am called.
"llama" translates to "he/she/it calls"; "llamo" would be "I call". (And I'm not sure if you need a ser/estar in there to make the "am"....)
Not 'calls' or 'call' but ' he/she/it is called' or 'I am called'. The verb llamarse is 'to be called', whereas the verb 'llamar' is 'to call', as in 'I called to see her yesterday', or 'He called me on the phone this morning'.
Literally "llamarse" means "to call oneself". It is a reflexive verb. So "X se llama Y" is "X calls him/her-self Y".
@Andreaja69:
You are right in that the reflexive can be interpreted as some kind of passive voice.
But for English speakers this might be misleading, because the phrase "X is called Y" usually refers to some nickname and not the real name of X, so that "X se llama Y" is best translated by "X's name is Y" in order to avoid misinterpretations.
Yes, you're quite right, but as we don't use the reflexive very often in English, the Spanish reflexive can be translated as 'to be called' or 'to be named', although obviously the most usual form is 'My name is....'
How are you able to write that sentence when it didn't have thoes words
Thanks for the clarification. Is this due to the possessive form in English cannot be dorectly conveyed in Soanish, i.e., daughter's name?
the "se llama" means in english "calls herself". "mi hija se llama sofia" means "my daughter calls herself sofia"
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Can someone help me understand how come my answer of "Mi hija nombre es Sofia.", isn't correct?
This doesn't make sense. Would be like saying "My daughter name is Sofia".
in english you'd need the apostrophe, "daughter's." in spanish they don't have possessive apostrophes. that's why you say "the name of my daughter," "el nombre de mi hijo," since you can't say "daughter's name."
but as other people in this thread have pointed out, speaking this way is formal and somewhat stiff, and "mi hija se llama," "my daughter calls herself," is much more common.
Ok so there's no real possesion in Spanish like english? I can't say: Mi hija se nombre es Sofia. As you said, it would have to be: "the name of my daughter," "el nombre de mi hijo," to indicate the name belongs to the daughter.
To express possession you must use a construction like "the name of my daughter".
"Mi hija se nombre es Sofía" does not make any sense. It would translate to "My daughter herself name is Sofía".
It is incorrect because "the daughter" doesn't possess (the) "name". You have two nouns ("mi hija" and "nombre") and nothing connecting them; and the article ("el") is missing from nombre. "The name of my daughter is Sofia." (El nombre de mi hija es Sofia.) is what should be said. (If using this way to say this, instead of the "se llama" route.)
It is a reflexive pronoun, meaning "himself" or "herself" (and in the case of a "formal you" even "yourself".
A literal translation of the Spanish sentence is "My daughter calls herself Sofia".
"te llama" is "he/she calls you", "se llama" is "he/she/it calls himself/herself/itself"
Because "mi hija" is the subject of the sentence. The "personal a" is used only for (human) objects.
This would literally translate to the nonsensical sentence "My daughter is calling herself is Sofia".
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I think it's because the verb is 'se llama' (literally = 'calls herself') so the 'es' is unnecessary. It's like the French 's'appelle'.
"Llama" is already a conjugated verb (llamar) and you're adding another conjugated verb when you add "es". "Se llama" means to call oneself, which is technically how you would say "a person's name is" in Spanish. If you translated what you wrote it would be "My daughter calls herself is Sofia"
I believe 'se' is like "herself, himself, themselves". So it would be roughly translated as: My daughter, herself calls, Sofia. In other words "calls herself Sofia"
The "es" is superfluous. "Mi hija se llama Sofía" already is "My daughter calls herself Sofìa" (i.e. "My daughter's name is Sofía"). There is no room for another "es".
I put "se llama Sofia mi hija" and it was accepted. My Spanish teacher taught us that the order or the nouns doesn't really matter in Spanish?
So literally, I'm saying "she calls herself Sofia, my daughter"/"she goes by Sofia, my daughter" which does technically make sense in English, but its not usually phrased like that
My husband who is fluent in Spanish says there is not supposed to be an accent on the word Sofia. Withe double ending vowels the accent is always on the first vowel.
The ia are considered a single syllable, so without the accent, the stress would be on the o, which is wrong.
And aren't Names an exception from writing rules at all? At least in German are. I learned to know people from which the name I already heard often and then when first read their name I was wondering:"Saw that name written in way A and sometimes in way B also, but like this I didn't knew that exists also."
Yes, that's a rather corrupted sentence. Like saying "My daughter herself name Sofía".
You can't exchange "nombre" for "llama". "nombre means "name", and "llama" means "(she) calls".
So it should be "Mi hija se llama Sofía" (literally "My daughter calls herself Sofía").
"Mi hija se nombre es Sofia", technically correct or incorrect? I got marked as wrong.
No, that doesn't make sense. It would be something like "My daughter herself name is Sofía".
Because you never use the "personal a" for the subject of the sentence.
"se" is the reflexive pronoun 3rd person ("himself", "herself", "itself", "themselves".
It is necessary here, because the construction is literally "My daughter calls herself Sofía".
"sidden"? What is that?
In this sentence. "se" is "herself"
Although in Englísh it's more natural to say "my daughter's name is" the sentence more strictly means "my daughter calls herself" and it uses the reflexive verb llamarse - "to call oneself"
A reflexive verb is one where the subject (person or thing performing the action of the verb - "my daughter") and the object (the person or thing receiving the action of the verb - "herself") are the same.
So, "mi hija se llama" - "my daughter she calls herself" literally, or "her name is" more figuratively.
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Yes, mija/o is a colloquial term of affection used to address your child, as in calling them "dear" or "sweetie". It can also be used colloquially for a friend, as in referring to them as "buddy" or "darling".
It doesn't really translate as "my daughter", so in Duo's sentence it would mean something like "Sweetie calls herself Sofía".
See
https://www.spanishdict.com/translate/mija
Also see this post in this forum by Enidarrah
https://forum.duolingo.com/comment/29527019?comment_id=33491539
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It's worth noting that the Spanish directly translates to "My daughter calls herself Sofia". Makes it easier to remember for me.
I would think it'd be "te llamas Sofia, since my hija is someone with whom I am informal. ...Or is it that the person being spoken to is the formal one since they don't know me well enough to know that mi hija se llama Sofia. I think I need a break.
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Hello Passerby1010: That would be like saying "My daughter you call you Sofia". It helps to remember that the verb used in this sentence is llamarse not llamar. If you look up the conjugation for llamarse it will help you.
Because the construction in the Spanish sentence is literally "My daughter is calling herself Sofia". There is no genitive in this sentence.
That doesn't make any sense. It would mean "She calls her of my daughter is Sofia".
"hijas" is the plural of "hija". That would be "daughters". Here we talk of only one daughter.
"te llamas" literally means "(you) call yourself". That can't be of any use here. You need "(she) calls herself", which is "se llama".
Just put mi hija's nombre es Sofia and it marked it wrong so i checked it on translator and it said it was correct so which is it?
It is not correct. Spanish doesn't use the "'s" way of forming a possession, that's English. So translator is wrong (as is often the case).
This has already been answeed. Spanish does not use "apostrophe + s" for denoting possession. That's English.
No. This sentence is not a valid sentence at all. In English that would be something like "The she calls of my daughter is Sofia".
You seem to think that "llama" means "name", but it doesn't. "llama" means "(he/she/it) calls".
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Hello JaySquires4: It would help if you look up the verb llamarse. You are trying to use the conjugated form of the verb llamarse "se llama" (she calls herself) as a noun. The Spanish translation to the English "My daughter's name is Sofía' is "Mi hija se llama Sofía." It helps to learn that this literally means "My daughter calls herself Sofía". Jay it would also help if you read through the thread before posting, as much of this has already been answered in the thread.
"se" doesn't mean "is". It means "herself" in this sentence. "Mi hija se llama Sofía." literally means "My daughter calls herself Sofía". "llama" means "(he/she/it) calls".
Thank you for making that connection for me. It doesn't make sense to say she calls is Sofia.
"se llama" is 3rd person singular ("(he/she/it) is calling him/her/it-self"), "te llamas" is 2nd person singular ("you (informal) are calling yourself").
"se llama" can also be the "formal you", but that doesn't apply here either.
For the same reason why you don't say "My daughter her name is Sofía" in English.
You can either say "Mi hija se llama Sofia" (literally "My daughter is calling herself Sofía") or
"El nombre de mi hija es Sofía" (literally "The name of my daughter is Sofia"). The latter sounds a little more clumsy in both languages, but is possible as well.
Mi nombre de hija es Sofia
Is this correct, other places it shows that it is fine, need to clarify
No. That doesn't make much sense.
Would be something like "My name of daughter is Sofía".
What you need is "The name of my daughter is Sofía", which is "El nombre de mi hija es Sofía".
not. This would be something like "My daughter name is Sofía". Not a correct sentence.
I wrote "Mi hija te llama Sofía." The correct way is "se llama". Could "te llama" work? If not, why not
"te" means "you" (object case) or "yourself". So your sentence reads as "My daughter calls you Sofía". But it should be "My daughter calls herself Sofía". "se" is "him/her/them" as well as "himself/herself/themselves". It could be "you/yourself", too, in the case of the "formal you" "usted".
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Hello JasonPugh5: Apostrophe plus s as in daughter's shows possession, not plurality as in daughters.
I put in: mi hija nombre es sofia... it was incorrect... had i used esta instead of es , would that still be correct? The answer they gave was mi hija se llama sofia... just wondering if that works as well... Mi hija nombre esta sofia
"mi hija nombre" does not make any sense. That is "my daughter name".
You have to find an equivalent of "my daufghter's" name". In Spanish that is phrased as something that resembles "the name of my daughter": "el nombre de mi hija".
But "X's name is" would usually be phrased "X is calling himself/herself". That's why you get "Mi hija se llama" here.
There's no possessive version of words in Spanish. You would have to write "the thing of x person" to show possession.. like.."the name of my daughter" (el nombre de mi hija) or "the dog of my son (el perro de mi hijo)."
Conversely, with names, it's conventional to say "my daughter calls herself (mi hija se llama)" instead of "the name of my daughter is."
"me llama" means "he (or she) calls me". I don't think that you have met this in this course. Probably you think of "me llamo". This is "I call myself" or, in common English "my name is".
"te llama" is "he (or she) calls you". Again I think you meant "te llamas" which is "you call yourself" (or "your name is"). You'd use this when talking to a child, a close friend or a family member.
For anybody else you'd use "se llama", which means "you call yourself" as well, using the "formal you" "usted".
But "se llama" can also mean "he calls himself" and "she calls herself". This is what is needed in the sentence here.
"me" is first person, myself, me, etc. "te" is second person, yourself, you, etc. "se" is third person, himself, herself, him, her and in Spanish the formal you.
This means "My daughter calls you Sonía". Instead of "you" you need "herself", which is "se".
Because this is a rather weird word order, like saying "Calls herself my daughter Sofía" in English.
El nombre de mi hija es sofia, that's what it is in Spanish when you translate.
That's one possibility to phrase it, yes, but a rather clumsy one. There are better ones.
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I typed (Mi jiha se llama Sofía) and it marked me incorrect because it is asking for the plural of something that I cannot see
"se llama" means "(he/she/it) calls himself/herself/itself", "te llamas" means "(you) call yourself".
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Spanish does not use "apostrophe s" for grammatical possession like English does ("my daughter's name") but mostly uses the preposition de to show possession, amongst other things. So I think your sentence should be
El nombre de mi hija es Sofía.
But I understand that way of saying it is not very common – it is more formal.
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Not correct. That would be like saying "My daughter name is Sofia".
You need to express the possession. Since there is no "apostrophe-s" in Spanish, this would be "El nombre de mi hija es Sofía" (literally "The name of my daughter is Sofía").
But that sounds clumsy. "Mi hija se llama Sofía" (literally (My daughter calls herself Sofía") is far better.
If you read the comments, you would find out that this has already been answered.
Technically, in Spanish when you say "my name is" you are saying "I call myself". LLamar = to call, as in "people call me Bruno". "Mi nombre es "is literally "My name is" but people don't really say that when speaking, they say "call me ___". So the answers to this question either should include both options as correct answers or shift them to match better. I was marked incorrect during the placement test for current speakers because I typed "nombre" in the answer (did not use the pre arranged bubbles) which is inaccurate and a bad lesson for new speakers.
Do the words nice or well done or excellent reflect on how near you answers are to perfect
"Mija se llama Sofía." is correct right? Duolingo says it's incorrect, but I don't believe it.
"se" is a reflexive pronoun ("herself"). "su" is a possessive pronoun ("her"), which does not make any sense here.
A literal translation of the Spanish sentence is "My daughter calls herself Sofía".
"llama" is a verb form, meaning "(he/she/it) calls". It is not a noun. And it does not mean "name".
"nombre" is a noun and means "name". "se llama" is a verb form and means "(he/she/it) calls him/her/it-self".
Because the "peraonal a" is only used for personal objects of a sentence.
But "mi hija" is the subject here.
Because that doesn't make much sense. It would be like saying "My daughter name is Sofía".
You have to express the possessive, which is done in English by adding " 's" to "daughter". But in Spanish you can't do this. So you would need to say something like "the name of my daughter is Sofía", which is "El nombre de mi hija es Sofía".
This is a correct translation, but sounds rather clumsy. ""Mi hija se llama Sofía" (literally "My daughter calls herself Sofía") is much more elegant.
I received an indicator of "another correct solution" when I typed the "correct solution".
