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  5. "Él no sentía eso."

"Él no sentía eso."

Translation:He did not feel that.

April 3, 2013

55 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/griffiths

He didn't used to feel that --- mark it correctly. Use to is incorrect in English. It's USED TO


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/jindr004

Turns out, and I did not know this before now, but "used to" is the correct form for a positive statement( He used to feel that) but "use to" is the correct form for a negative (he did not use to feel that) UNLESS the negative is an absolute negation (he never used to feel that).

I swear I have learned more English grammar in two months on this site than I learned in two decades of school.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/crrrivers

I think you're on the right track jindr004, but I think it's more a question of tense. It's stated that "He did not feel that" is a correct solution, but "He did not use to feel that" is not. Notice how 'did not' places the statements in the past and 'feel' is present tense as is 'use'. We don't say, "He did not felt that." so we don't say "He did not used to feel that."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/geneven

This is a controversial issue, I learned from Garner's Modern American Usage, the best contemporary English usage book I know. He supports "didn't used to." I recommend reading his discussion for those who care.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/cermets

No. The verb is always in present tense when there's did/didn't. It's like we should start saying things like "I didn't cooked it" or "He didn't smiled." or 'I didn't denied it". "I didn't lived." No that's wrong.

The rule is that when there's 'did' the verb stays in its present form.

He used to smoke. (no did here, so use becomes used - past tense)

Yes, he did use to smoke. (did is here, so it's just use)

Did he use to smoke?

He didn’t use to smoke.

The uncertainty about which form to use probably arises because the "used to" is pronounced with a single /t/ which is homophone with "use to".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/John59761

Great explanation of when to use USE and USED. Thanks!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/sguthrie1

Thanks fore admitting you have learned grammar. (So have I learned English grammar). Too bad so many others speak ignorantly about English grammar without bothering to look it up!

By the way, here is a reference, which was easily looked up. https://www.perfect-english-grammar.com/used-to.html


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/TimEsh

This is incorrect. Normally it is used to, but when English has a negative you add an auxiliary verb which takes the past tense.and then it becomes use. "I saw it", "I did not see it", NOT "I did not saw it". Likewise, this should be "I did not use to" not "I did not used to".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/cliv
  • 1346

The key is the auxiliary word "did" and not the fact that it is negative. It someone said that I didn't use to think something that I did, I would respond "I did use to think that."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/s_helmer

Good explanation - Thanks


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/sguthrie1

See my reference above.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/herbieturtle

Although native English speakers sometimes pronounce "did not use to" as "did not used to" (very hard to tell the difference if one is speaking at a normal pace), only the former "did not use to" is correct. Just like it is incorrect to say "did not went," it is also incorrect to say "did not used to." Even though it is technically correct, it is more clear and more common to say "He used to not feel that" (despite the split infinitive) instead.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/DaveHarris809825

Even better still would be to say (as I always do):

"He used not to feel that"

which avoids the split infinitive too. Mind you, let's not get into a didcussion about split infinitives!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/dcrand

Yes, "he used to not feel that" is indeed more grammatical but still counted wrong.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/sguthrie1

Because it has an unnecessary split infinitive.
Nor is it "more grammatical".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/sguthrie1

It's "did use to". To create a past tense with "did" use the base stem of the verb--that is, the infinitive without the "to".

Or, create a past tense by adding a "d" (or "ed" for many other words), thus "used" .
"He did use to..., or "he used to..."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/davyboy57

He didn't use to feel that


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/cal7

why is there no 'se'?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/TalGelman-

Sentirse is used for inside feelings: "Él no se siente bien" - he doesn't feel well. Sentimos el frio - we feel the cold(the cold is from the outside and therfore the se is not needed) . Hope that helps :)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/EdK4kY

I was thinking that maybe it is the fact that sentirse is an intransitive verb. This means you can use it with an adverb such as bien or mal, but eso is not an adverb. Eso is a pronoun, so it can only be used here as the object of a transitive verb, which requires us to use sentir not sentirse.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/EdK4kY

Whereas "no se sentía así" would be valid for "he was not feeling like that" because así is an adverb.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/alezzzix

That's exactly why.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Torgrim1

But we don't know if "that" is on the inside or outside?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/TalGelman-

I believe that if the sentence is given without the "se" than we know that it's from the outside.If you need to translate from English to Spanish, than I think It can be with or without the "se" because we don't know :)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/thelegendaryjay

Me gusta tu explicación. ¡Genial! Gracias.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/tedstone100

I, too, would like to know the answer to 'why is there no se.'


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/marida49

I agree with all those who say the correct form is "didn't use to". No reason to have twice the mark of the past.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/jburgess328

Why sentía and not sintió?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/malkeynz

Because it's conveying an action that could be continuing. "He was not feeling that" probably gets the idea across better, but sounds a bit strange - sometimes the most natural translation you can make in English uses the simple past.

Either that or it's referring to something habitual which you would translate using "used to" or "would", but that would seem less likely in this context, especially given Duo's translation. It could still work though: "He used to not feel that, but things have been improving ever since his operation and therapy".

See here ("English" section) for a better explanation.

"Sintió", on the other hand, implies a single, discrete 'event' of feeling something.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/glazewg

They tricked me with an audio question that I didn't listen to well enough. Earlier, I was given "Él no sintió eso" as the correct translation for "He did not feel that." However, the computer voice for this question stated (after listening to it more carefully) "Él no sentía eso." Both mean "He did not feel that," but in different tenses.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/GregHullender

What's wrong with "he did not hear that?"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/jindr004

"He did not hear that" does not appear to be wrong in the sense that you would be making a mistake, but from what I know and from what I am able to find that use of sentir seems to be used with the inflection that something was or was not sensed, as in when you are describing the perception of something.

So maybe you are creeping up on the guards and the clumsy dope to your left steps on a twig, you drop to the ground to see if you were heard. "Creo que he sentido un ruido", Él dice en su radio y, a continuación, todos ustedes están muertos. Nice going clumsy guy.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/neiht20

"Hear" is "oír", so the sentence would be "él no oía eso".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/GregHullender

No, sentir can mean "to hear." Quoting from the Royal Academy's dictionary (definition #2) "Oír o percibir con el sentido del oído. Siento pasos."

This turns up quite a bit in the popular detective novels I read. (And for which Duolingo usually prepares you well.) :-)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/neiht20

Ok, after looking it up, you are correct. "Sentir" can mean "to hear", but it is more commonly taught as "to feel" and Duo teaches it this way. You could try reporting it if you really think that "to hear" would work as a translation.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/janwiltzen

I put " He did not regret that" Why is this not an acceptable answer?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/riodelbanana

Estoy muy confundido. How is "He did not feel that" a correct answer? I would think that would be expressed using the preterite form of sentir, and not the imperfect form. Wouldn't "Él no sintió eso" translate to "He did not feel that", and "Él no sentía eso" translate to "He did not use to feel that"? (Or "used to", whichever is grammatically correct).


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/darrincarlson

"He didn't use to feel that" is an acceptable answer but "he didn't used to feel that" isn't?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/vandermonde

The "did" is covering the past tense for you in that formation. You don't need a 'd' on "use" as a result.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/gulmer

DuoLinguo, I USED to think you were helpful.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Ying56

La gente sentía ira y desesperación. People felt a sense of anger and despair.
We are learning Spanish, and Spanish grammar is sometime tough. Don't despair.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/nueby

He did not use to feel that. was rejected and corrected (allegedly) to He did not used to feel that. on 18 July 2014.

It seems Duo may have gone from wall to wall on the correct negation of "used to", all the while convinced that whichever way was correct at the time was the only one.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/mnovack

Why is this imperfect here?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/SteampunkRaccoon

Would you be able to say "he didn't feel that way"?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Murfbird

"He would not have felt that" seems more natural.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/swedishmaid

Why not sentaba?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Laragazza215994

Because "sentaba" is the past tense for sentarse (to seat down)

Sentir is past tense is Yo sentí/sentía Tú sentiste/sentías Él-ella sintió/sentía Nos. sentimos / sentíamos Uds. sintieron/ sentían Vosotros sentíais/ Ellos sintieron/ sentían


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/njoysmoker

Is sentia not present tense


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Brycecrab

Could someone explain why it's imperfect and not preterite? Maybe give some possible context to this sentence?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/PhillipMcN2

@Brycecrab
You posted on the wrong web page with this question. The exercise that we are discussing here is an exercise about translating into English unless you are presented with a fill in the blank exercise. Were you filling in the blank with the verb? If you were, then you were doing a multiple choice exercise. But such an exercise would not require you to choose between the preterite or the imperfect unless you were doing an exercise that is not the same as the exercise we are discussing here on this web page. So you posted on the wrong web page.

there is a reciprocal Duolingo exercise over in the learning English forum. That is the right web page to post your question about the translation into Spanish:
He did not feel that.


This post that you are about to read is about translating into English:
In the Learning Spanish from English course, this Duolingo exercise is included in the skill set entitled, "Past Imperfect" (or "Past Imp").

Spanish sentences that are written in the imperfect tense in Spanish do not have a direct translation into English in exactly the same verb tense. The best translation might sometimes be closer to one particular English verb tense on one occassion, but closer to a different English verb tense on another occassion. For example, look at the two translations below.

Duolingo exercise:
Él no sentía eso.
— He did not feel that.
— He was not feeling that.

The first English sentence above might be categorized as the simple past tense. The second English sentence above might be categorized as the past progressive tense (also called the past continuous tense). But the Spanish language uses the imperfect tense to say approximately the same thing that the English language says by using a different verb tense. The English language has no general tense for the imperfective (aspect) and expresses the imperfective aspect in different ways.


If anybody wants to learn about the Spanish imperfect tense, here is a link for students of the Spanish language who know nothing about the imperfect tense.

https://baselang.com/blog/basic-grammar/spanish-imperfect-tense/


This same Duolingo exercise that we are discussing here is also part of the learning English from Spanish course. This explains why there is a second forum web page dedicated to this exact same exercise!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/KarinaAotearoa

I would find it less confusing if we could use He was not feeling that.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/PhillipMcN2

@KarinaAotearoa

We need to report these incidents whenever Duo rejects our correct answers.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/dimond223

What Did he not feel? ( give some ideas)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AhmedRamad16

Why not "él no se sentía eso"?? I thought that we should use "se" before "sentía"!!!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AnnaLeBaro

Could this mean, he wasn't feeling that, like he wasn't feeling that way?

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