Turns out, and I did not know this before now, but "used to" is the correct form for a positive statement( He used to feel that) but "use to" is the correct form for a negative (he did not use to feel that) UNLESS the negative is an absolute negation (he never used to feel that).
I swear I have learned more English grammar in two months on this site than I learned in two decades of school.
I think you're on the right track jindr004, but I think it's more a question of tense. It's stated that "He did not feel that" is a correct solution, but "He did not use to feel that" is not. Notice how 'did not' places the statements in the past and 'feel' is present tense as is 'use'. We don't say, "He did not felt that." so we don't say "He did not used to feel that."
No. The verb is always in present tense when there's did/didn't. It's like we should start saying things like "I didn't cooked it" or "He didn't smiled." or 'I didn't denied it". "I didn't lived." No that's wrong.
The rule is that when there's 'did' the verb stays in its present form.
He used to smoke. (no did here, so use becomes used - past tense)
Yes, he did use to smoke. (did is here, so it's just use)
Did he use to smoke?
He didn’t use to smoke.
The uncertainty about which form to use probably arises because the "used to" is pronounced with a single /t/ which is homophone with "use to".
Thanks fore admitting you have learned grammar. (So have I learned English grammar). Too bad so many others speak ignorantly about English grammar without bothering to look it up!
By the way, here is a reference, which was easily looked up. https://www.perfect-english-grammar.com/used-to.html
This is incorrect. Normally it is used to, but when English has a negative you add an auxiliary verb which takes the past tense.and then it becomes use. "I saw it", "I did not see it", NOT "I did not saw it". Likewise, this should be "I did not use to" not "I did not used to".
Although native English speakers sometimes pronounce "did not use to" as "did not used to" (very hard to tell the difference if one is speaking at a normal pace), only the former "did not use to" is correct. Just like it is incorrect to say "did not went," it is also incorrect to say "did not used to." Even though it is technically correct, it is more clear and more common to say "He used to not feel that" (despite the split infinitive) instead.
I was thinking that maybe it is the fact that sentirse is an intransitive verb. This means you can use it with an adverb such as bien or mal, but eso is not an adverb. Eso is a pronoun, so it can only be used here as the object of a transitive verb, which requires us to use sentir not sentirse.
Because it's conveying an action that could be continuing. "He was not feeling that" probably gets the idea across better, but sounds a bit strange - sometimes the most natural translation you can make in English uses the simple past.
Either that or it's referring to something habitual which you would translate using "used to" or "would", but that would seem less likely in this context, especially given Duo's translation. It could still work though: "He used to not feel that, but things have been improving ever since his operation and therapy".
See here ("English" section) for a better explanation.
"Sintió", on the other hand, implies a single, discrete 'event' of feeling something.
They tricked me with an audio question that I didn't listen to well enough. Earlier, I was given "Él no sintió eso" as the correct translation for "He did not feel that." However, the computer voice for this question stated (after listening to it more carefully) "Él no sentía eso." Both mean "He did not feel that," but in different tenses.
"He did not hear that" does not appear to be wrong in the sense that you would be making a mistake, but from what I know and from what I am able to find that use of sentir seems to be used with the inflection that something was or was not sensed, as in when you are describing the perception of something.
So maybe you are creeping up on the guards and the clumsy dope to your left steps on a twig, you drop to the ground to see if you were heard. "Creo que he sentido un ruido", Él dice en su radio y, a continuación, todos ustedes están muertos. Nice going clumsy guy.
Estoy muy confundido. How is "He did not feel that" a correct answer? I would think that would be expressed using the preterite form of sentir, and not the imperfect form. Wouldn't "Él no sintió eso" translate to "He did not feel that", and "Él no sentía eso" translate to "He did not use to feel that"? (Or "used to", whichever is grammatically correct).
He did not use to feel that. was rejected and corrected (allegedly) to He did not used to feel that. on 18 July 2014.
It seems Duo may have gone from wall to wall on the correct negation of "used to", all the while convinced that whichever way was correct at the time was the only one.
You posted on the wrong web page with this question. The exercise that we are discussing here is an exercise about translating into English unless you are presented with a fill in the blank exercise. Were you filling in the blank with the verb? If you were, then you were doing a multiple choice exercise. But such an exercise would not require you to choose between the preterite or the imperfect unless you were doing an exercise that is not the same as the exercise we are discussing here on this web page. So you posted on the wrong web page.
there is a reciprocal Duolingo exercise over in the learning English forum. That is the right web page to post your question about the translation into Spanish:
He did not feel that.
This post that you are about to read is about translating into English:
In the Learning Spanish from English course, this Duolingo exercise is included in the skill set entitled, "Past Imperfect" (or "Past Imp").
Spanish sentences that are written in the imperfect tense in Spanish do not have a direct translation into English in exactly the same verb tense. The best translation might sometimes be closer to one particular English verb tense on one occassion, but closer to a different English verb tense on another occassion. For example, look at the two translations below.
Él no sentía eso.
— He did not feel that.
— He was not feeling that.
The first English sentence above might be categorized as the simple past tense. The second English sentence above might be categorized as the past progressive tense (also called the past continuous tense). But the Spanish language uses the imperfect tense to say approximately the same thing that the English language says by using a different verb tense. The English language has no general tense for the imperfective (aspect) and expresses the imperfective aspect in different ways.
If anybody wants to learn about the Spanish imperfect tense, here is a link for students of the Spanish language who know nothing about the imperfect tense.
This same Duolingo exercise that we are discussing here is also part of the learning English from Spanish course. This explains why there is a second forum web page dedicated to this exact same exercise!
We need to report these incidents whenever Duo rejects our correct answers.