About var

Can anyone help clear this up?

One of the lessons had Kimin cocukları khavaltıda and kimin cocukları khavaltıda var as possible answers. But why does this give var on the end as a possible answer?

Khave sende (the coffee is with/at you)

Sen khaven var (you have/own the coffee)

Kimin cocuklar(I) - whose children... Khavaltıda - whose children are at breakfast.... So why var on the end?

Does var mean something exists in a place or with you And as a way of expressing possession ?

November 10, 2018


You can use "Var" as "have-has" or "there /is are" : Senin kahven var = You have a coffee Kahvaltıda çocuklar var = There are children at the breakfast. **IMPORTANT "Sende kahve var." 's meaning isn't "There is coffee in/at you." "Sende kahve var." 's meaning is "You have coffe" You are not obligated in using "Sende" You can say "Kahven var." as "Senin kahven var" Because we have personal ending "-n" kahveM= My coffee kahveN=Your coffee kahveSİ =His/her coffee * And... Kahvaltıda kimin çocukları var(dır) ve never use this ending-(dır) (I don't know why) (A STRANGE THİNG is "Var" is not a verb it is a noun.) Sooo "Kimin çocukları kahvaltıda(dır)" IN TURKISH Stressed element in the sentence is the nearest word to the predicate. So in "Kahvaltıda kimin çocukları var?" "kimin çocukları" is the stressed element but in "Kimin çocukları kahvaltıda var?" "kahvaltıda" is the stressed element. It's a hard language. I hope I can tell you. If I have some mistakes in grammar please forgive me

If you say 'I have a key', it would be 'Bende bir anahtar var' (the key might not be yours) or 'Benim bir anahtarım var' (the key is yours)

If you say 'I have the key' or 'The key is with me', that would be 'Anahtar bende'

So you can use 'var' for possession when the object is indefinite.

Kimin çocukları kahvaltıda? = Whose children are at breakfast?

Kahvaltıda kimin çocukları var? = Whose children are present at breakfast?

The difference is really subtle.

"Kimin çocukları kahvaltıda" and "Kimin çocukları kahvaltıda var", both are the same. To be adds that "var" meaning.

Thanks very much for taking the time to reply both of you.

However, I'm still confused as to why use var at all if it's not needed in the sentence kimin cocukları khavaltıda var.

Var (as ladyrooster points out) means there is/have, correct? So this makes me think the sentence kimin cocukları khavaltıda var means "there is [var] whose children at breakfast, which makes no sense in English.

Unless you mean when you say var adds 'to be' that it gives us are in the sentence whose children (are) at breakfast. I thought 'to be' was added using the copula suffixes though.

Firstly, the order sounds weird: Kimin çocukları kahvaltıda var. = Whose childeren are there at the breakfast

Instead,this sounds better: Kahvaltıda kimin çocukları var.

And when you take out "var", this order sounds better: Kimin çocukları kahvaltıda. = Whose children are at the breakfast

Var is usually used to express possession with the possessive suffix: Bir atım var = I have a horse

And without possessive suffixes it means presence: Orada bir at var = There is a horse over there.

Bir at orada = A horse is over there.

Kimin çocukları has a possessive suffix in it but it doesn't have a possessive property that goes with "var".

Instead, the following would have a possessive suffix related to var: Kimin çocuklarının kahvaltısı var = Whose children have breakfast

Actually, you are right. Var is unneeded in a sentence. In everday speech, we don't use it for this reason. "-da" suffix is enough for us to understand.

Will, i trie to answer your question, in that way. Thinking about "var" at the end of this sentence: "kahvalti(pointless)da kimim çocuklari(pointless) var". I imagine this sentence in a different way: "there are children of whom at the breakfast", so "there are children"= "çocuklari var"- "of whom"="kimin" No doubt it is bad English but "There are" would justify "var".

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