"The party already began."
Translation:La fiesta ya empezó.
Those words translate literally to begin and commence, respectively. Just so you have an idea as to why they're interchangeable.
But in English they have different connotations (denotative meaning the same) - 'commence' is much more formal. If a friend said to another " the party has commenced", they would be mis-reading the occasion unless it was a very formal event or the speaker was being mildly ironic. Words of the same denotative meaning are not necessarily interchangeable. Is this the same for the Spanish equivalents? "Shall I commence to serve lunch", is incongruous in any informal everyday situation. It is like the difference between 'residence' and 'house'. I often feel the need to ask native Spanish speakers on DL about usage and context because meaning is not clear cut
I think your translation may be due to differences between AmE and BrE. I am a native speaker of British English (BrE), and I cannot think when I would use the sentence 'The party already began'. I can say either, 'The party has already begun' or 'The party had already begun'. So if you have learned BrE, I completely understand why you translated the sentence as 'la fiesta ya había empezado' -- it was the first meaning that I thought of myself.
I'm very confused about word order in reference to "ya". When I got it wrong it says "la fiesta empezó ya" and when I come to the discussion page it says the correct phrase is "la fiesta ya empezó" are both of those correct? I put "ya la fiesta empezó" because I didn't think the word order would be the same as the English translation. It sounded strange to me but then again I'm not a native or fluent speaker.
Through trial and error, one of the things I learned about Spanish is that when "no" is used as an adverb, it has to be in front of both the main verb and the helping verb. (For example, "Ellos no habían leyendo el libro" is correct, and "Ellos habían no leyendo el libro" is incorrect.) Maybe this is also true for other Spanish adverbs. If anyone knows more about this, please fee free to comment further.
Although both Spanish and English each have absolute rules about the placement of the adverb "no," this rule does not hold for all English adverbs. Specifically, some adverbs can come before or after the verb as long as they are as close as possible to some part of the verb phrase they are modifying. (With the verb phrase "has begun," for example, all of the following are correct and sound natural: "The party already has begun," "The party has already begun," and "The party has begun already.")
I think it is significant that if a present participle, such as "beginning," is used instead of a past participle, such as "begun," (which, unlike a present participle, can be used with a modal helping verb in either past or present tense), then the placement of the English adverb is much more restricted. (For example, "The party is already beginning" and "The party is beginning already" sound much more natural to a native speaker' than "The party already is beginning." Any native English speakers hearing the last sentence would understand perfectly what it meant. At the same time, they would think that whoever wrote or said it was NOT a native speaker, because native speakers don't put the adverb first when they modify the main verb phrases in passive voice sentences.)
For some idiosyncratic reason, the English language is very focused on time. Likewise, the Spanish language seems to be more focused on location. This is just how the languages evolved, and when translating, I try to remember this when I am deciding where to place the adverbs. Hope this helps. ;^)
In English, the word "carnival" can mean either "fair" or "party." However, "party" and "fair" can sometimes have different shades of meaning or even completely different meanings in English. For instance, sometimes English speakers use "fair" when they are talking about an open air market where anyone can go and things are bought and sold. Used this way, a "fair" could be a "carnival" because fairs can have a carnival atmosphere.
Also, sometimes English speakers use "party' when they are talking about private parties at which attendance is by invitation only. Because carnivals are parties in the sense that they are exciting times of gaiety and frolicking, in that sense they are like large public parties to which any local person can come.
When the words "fair" and "party" are not used with their shared meaning of "carnival," they certainly don't mean the same thing. This is probably why duo doesn't accept them as synonyms. I think the program doesn't accept these translations so that we duo users can learn these distinctions.