"The party already began."

You can use both interchangeably :) (native spanish speaker)

'ya empezó la fiesta' on the other hand is correct. I guess ya and the verb have to stick tgt

It looks good to me.

That's what I put and the owl said that I was wrong. Lost a heart!

No, I learned from experience. ;(

Usually besides the verb

DL is no respecter of credentials. It will chew you up and spit you out!!!

Close, but that would be, "The party had already begun."

I think your translation may be due to differences between AmE and BrE. I am a native speaker of British English (BrE), and I cannot think when I would use the sentence 'The party already began'. I can say either, 'The party has already begun' or 'The party had already begun'. So if you have learned BrE, I completely understand why you translated the sentence as 'la fiesta ya había empezado' -- it was the first meaning that I thought of myself.

To me, the two sentences are 'one and the same'. In fact, it is more properly expressed as 'had begun', in normal English usage.

I guess because "empiezo" means "I begin", so the programme thinks your confusing the first person singular present tense of "empezar" (i.e. "empiezo") with the third person singular pretérito indefinido (i.e. "empezó")

Yes.

spelling error

I'm not an expert, but is your "se" supposed to be a reflexive pronoun? If it is, then maybe "comenzó" cannot be used with a reflexive pronoun. Maybe a native Spanish speaker can shed some light here.

not positive, but I think it would be "La fiesta ya comenzó"

Yes you can, but that means that the party is starting, so for the traduction of this sentnce you can't. ( I'm spanish )

I want to know that, too.

I think perhaps the use of inició is for when the meaning calls for a pronoun like "se" so that the Spanish sentence is the equivalent of an English passive sentence. However, I don't know for sure if I'm on the right track with my reply.

Through trial and error, one of the things I learned about Spanish is that when "no" is used as an adverb, it has to be in front of both the main verb and the helping verb. (For example, "Ellos no habían leyendo el libro" is correct, and "Ellos habían no leyendo el libro" is incorrect.) Maybe this is also true for other Spanish adverbs. If anyone knows more about this, please fee free to comment further.

Although both Spanish and English each have absolute rules about the placement of the adverb "no," this rule does not hold for all English adverbs. Specifically, some adverbs can come before or after the verb as long as they are as close as possible to some part of the verb phrase they are modifying. (With the verb phrase "has begun," for example, all of the following are correct and sound natural: "The party already has begun," "The party has already begun," and "The party has begun already.")

I think it is significant that if a present participle, such as "beginning," is used instead of a past participle, such as "begun," (which, unlike a present participle, can be used with a modal helping verb in either past or present tense), then the placement of the English adverb is much more restricted. (For example, "The party is already beginning" and "The party is beginning already" sound much more natural to a native speaker' than "The party already is beginning." Any native English speakers hearing the last sentence would understand perfectly what it meant. At the same time, they would think that whoever wrote or said it was NOT a native speaker, because native speakers don't put the adverb first when they modify the main verb phrases in passive voice sentences.)

For some idiosyncratic reason, the English language is very focused on time. Likewise, the Spanish language seems to be more focused on location. This is just how the languages evolved, and when translating, I try to remember this when I am deciding where to place the adverbs. Hope this helps. ;^)

In English, the word "carnival" can mean either "fair" or "party." However, "party" and "fair" can sometimes have different shades of meaning or even completely different meanings in English. For instance, sometimes English speakers use "fair" when they are talking about an open air market where anyone can go and things are bought and sold. Used this way, a "fair" could be a "carnival" because fairs can have a carnival atmosphere.

Also, sometimes English speakers use "party' when they are talking about private parties at which attendance is by invitation only. Because carnivals are parties in the sense that they are exciting times of gaiety and frolicking, in that sense they are like large public parties to which any local person can come.

When the words "fair" and "party" are not used with their shared meaning of "carnival," they certainly don't mean the same thing. This is probably why duo doesn't accept them as synonyms. I think the program doesn't accept these translations so that we duo users can learn these distinctions.