"You used to come to see me."
Translation:Tu venais me voir.
Is there nothing particular to say to mean "used to"? This sentence reads "You came to see me" in my mind.
Frustrating. I pick the right answer and then DL says I'm wrong because I didn't pick a nonliteral translation as well.
How would I know "Vous veniez me rendre visite" is correct before I'd ever seen it before? Also, could someone please break this down for me? how does "rendre" fit in here?
Definition four for 'rendre' on wiktionary is:
rendre: to pay (a visit)
L'amour vient rendre visite à mon âme. — Love comes to pay a visit to my soul.
used too and other past habits use imparfait. also, to "go and see someone" is often said as "rendre visite" rather then "venir voir" . I would have said Tu me rendais visite
Passé composé wouldn't be a proper translation of the English in this case, although DL might possibly allow it.
Because that is incorrect structure. In French, direct object pronouns are placed in front of the verb.
Where is the idea of "come to" in "tu venais me voir"? I would have translated that as "you used to see me" more like if you used to frequent the same places, or you used to work together, or you used to not be blind, even.
Is that a common use of voir? It's not one I'm familiar with, so that'd be good to know.
Pour moi "used to" implique une notion "d'habitude" qu'on ne trouve pas forcément dans "tu venais me voir" !?
Please remind me why this is not 'Tu me venais voir' I can see that the 'me' refers to 'voir' but in passe compose constructions the pronouns go in the auxiliary and I thought it might be the same.