"The woman is rich."

Translation:La femme est riche.

April 5, 2013

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So, es is for referring to "you" in the first person, and "est" is referring to someone in the third person, right?


There's different conjugations for different verbs depending on the beginning. es and est are the verb "être" which is to be. Es is used for you singular, and est is used when it's she, he, ect. So, technically yes. It helps if you know the conjugations.

Like, Je suis (I am), Tu es (You are), Il/Elle/Qui/On est (He, she, who, one is), Nous sommes (We are), Vous êtes (You (plural) are) and Ils/Elles sont (They are)

Sorry if it seems confusing, but to put it simply, es and est are the conjugated version of the verb être, which is the "to be".


jessihugh- you is the second person : tu, singular


Can I use the same word "riche" for fem and masc?

  • 2370

Yes, "riche" is the same in the masculine and feminine form.


how to pronounce the word "riche"


i understand that sometimes the same word is pronunced differently. depending if it´s separated or in a whole sentence. like "es" tu es rich. you say tu eS reech, but word by word ES, is said only the "e" and that´s it. right? Une and un... some times both are the same pronuncaition. sometimes un is UN, and some times is AN, or In. or UNE could be UN, or AN. I THINK IS depending on which is the next sound or word. right? I AM DIEGO FROM MEXICO, so i speak spanihs, whoever wants to learn spanish, I AM here.


It's called A LIAISON. But "tu es riche" is always "tu-è-reesh" because there's no liaisons here. A liaison occurs only when you have a word ending with a consonant and the next word beginning with a vowel, and it's not the case here. For "une" and "un" they HAVE NOT the same pronounciation, but you can make a liaison between "un" and another following word if it starts with a vowel. "un" is phoneme, it's only one sound, like if it's a letter, except if you make a liaison, and the following vowel makes the "n" to be heard. Ex: a plane: un avion: I would say "un-na-vi-on" as only one word. If you don't understand my explanations, please ask.


Why isn't "L'femme est riche" also correct? Can't "La femme" be contracted into "l'femme" similar to the way "Le homme" becomes "l'homme?"

  • 2370

The determiner (or article) before a feminine singular noun is always "la" (ex: "la femme".

The determiner (or article) before a masculine singular noun is either:

  • "le": in front of a consonant (ex: "le livre"), or in front of an aspirated "h" (ex: le haricot, not "l'haricot")


  • "l'": in front of a mute "h" (ex: "l'homme")


L' is only the contracted form of "Le". Le become L' if the following noun begin with a vowel or an (aspirated) h, as it is the case with "homme". There's also a L' as a contractive form of "La". Example: the orange: La orange (not correct) become "L'orange". (correct) When you say "La femme", you don't need to contract the "La"! "F" is not a vowel.


Any tips on how/when to use 'es' or 'est'?

  • 2370

"es" is the 2nd person singular and has 2 letters.

"est" is the 3rd person singular and has 3 letters.


why can't you say L'femme? because its the same as l'homme. Doesn't it mean the same thing?


The elision, that is the skipping of a vowel substituting it with an apostrophe, only occurs when the next word begins with a vowel sound, that is a vowel or a non-aspired h. This is the case with le+homme which has to be elided to l'homme.

Femme do not begin with a vowel sound, so the la is never elided to l'femme.

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