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  5. "¿Tú bebes agua?"

"¿Tú bebes agua?"

Translation:Do you drink water?

December 21, 2018



Why does it sound like [veves] when she pronounces the whole sentence but [beves] when you listen to "drink" separately? Also, why the [v] sound when the letter is b? What is the rule here?


In Spanish most of the people don't make a difference between the pronunciation of V and B. They are pronounced the same.


Exacto. Yo soy español y la mayoría no distinguimos entre los sonidos de la B y la V.


It depends on the regions I believe.
Sometimes a "b" is pronounced as a "v", sometimes a "v" like a "b".
That's true that there are no clear distinction, but some areas pronounce it differently.


Very interesting and relevant. Thank you for that useful piece of information.


Why the question mark at the beginning?


Spanish is simply a language that puts the question or quotation mark at both ends of a phrase. As for why, this is because it is easier to read. The reader knows when to switch from a normal tone to a questioning tone, and switching between the two in a sentence is a surprisingly common occurrence.

English doesn't have them because it believes the changes are already implied, but Spanish believes it best to have that clarification regardless. The evolution of the two languages simply turned out this way.

Also, if you're wondering why it's upside-down, that's because the generation that came up with this practice decided to flip the first one over because it looked odd, and the following generations agreed it looks better this way and kept the change.


Wow! I didn't know that.


Because the accent mark on the word 'tu' means that it means 'you' instead of 'your', as it would mean without the accent mark.


Yes. "tú" = you, singular, informal you.
And tu = your


That's the way Spanish is! ¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿¿


That's a good question, but I think that's just how Spanish works. The part that of the sentence that's being asked as the question gets the question marks, but I'm not sure why.


It just to make us know that we have to take a higher pitch, the question tone.

So, it makes very easy to read questions in Spanish, because you know from the beginning it's a question, you don't have to wait for the final "?" in long questions.


Why is the translation for Do you drink water? - Tu bebes agua?; but in the previous question for Do you eat bread? it is Come pan usted? Is there a rule of thumb for when the word Tu or Usted comes at the beginning of the sentence or at the end?


Well... actually I think that there isn't a rule for it and we put it wherever we want depending on where do we want to make the emphasis. But the most usual and "correct" form is to put the pronoun at the beginning of the sentence.


Just to inform people here:
Do not confuse the 2 singular "you" in Spanish.

¿Tú bebes agua? Uses the informal "you".
¿Usted bebe agua? Uses the formal "you".

¿Tú comes pan? uses the informal you.
¿Usted comen pan? use the formal you.

The informal "Tú" uses the 2nd person conjugation, singular.
The formal "Usted" (sometimes abbreviated Ud.) uses the 3 person conjugation, singular.

but they both mean "you".

Be careful to write "Tú" and not "Tu". Because it is 2 different word in Spanish, very different meaning.

Tu = your. Tú = you, (informal, singular)


When I want to make question sentence, Doesn't Spanish have DO or DOES and change the order? It makes me confused


As far as I am aware, "do" is never used as an auxiliary verb, such as when forming questions. And no, forming questions does not change the order of the sentence. Carwile is correct, forming questions can change the order, though you're usually okay just omitting 'do' and keeping the sentence structure.

It may feel strange at first, but think of it this way: Sometimes when speaking English we will drop the "do" at the beginning of a phrase, as well. For example, "Do you want to go outside?" can be shortened to "You want to go outside?" which can be further shortened to "Want to go outside?" It's the same deal in Spanish, the difference is that this shortening is required, not optional.


Actually. . .what you said about questions not changing the word order is in many cases wrong. Questions CAN and OFTEN WILL change the word order of the sentence.

For example, you could say:

El muchacho tiene cinco dólares ---> The boy has five dollars.

However, if you wanted to ask how many dollars the boy has, you would say: ¿Cuántos dólares tiene el muchacho? ---> How many dollars does the boy have? (Literal: How many dollars has the boy).

Spanish is pretty flexible with its word order, so please do not fall into the trap of thinking it is the same as English!


That is different Carwile, because the rules when you use a question word requires an inversion.

For question without a question-words, Owen is right.


Yes, but also "¿El muchacho tiene cinco dólares?" is a correct question.


And now muchacho means noy?! I thought it was niño?!


I meant boy not noy


Muchacho and niño mean both "boy".
A "niño" is younger boy than a muchacho.


If you dont understand, i will try to help.

"¿Bebes agua?" is just simply asking "Do you drink water?" Bebes means drink and agua means water. "Tu bebes agua" sounds wrong to me but maybe i'm wrong. Also us spanish people most of the time put an upside down question mark in our questions if you are confused by that.


"¿Tú bebes agua?" is also correct, but it is more common to say it without the pronoun "Tú".


It is "Tú" not "Tu".

Be careful with that, especially in a beginner course,
because "tu" = your,
and "tú" = you (singular, informal)

¿Tú bebes agua? is grammatically correct in Spanish.
Like ¿Bebes agua? is. But the second is more common in Spanish.


I am confused. How do you pronounce "bebe" or "bebo"? Please Help.


It is a bit close of the "é" in "café".
So you can pronounce it [bébé].
And [bébo], with "o" made with a widely open mouth.
Note that the "b" and "v" pronunciation are not very clear in Spanish, and the 2 sounds can be inverted.


What is DO in spanish? Why jump to YOU DRINK WATER?


Spanish does not use 'do' as an auxiliary verb, or in other words, to form questions.

It may seem strange at first, but remember that we do the same thing in English: "You go to the movie last night?" "You and your friends drop by the arcade recently?" "He enjoy Paris while he was there?"

The difference is that in English this is optional, while in Spanish it is required.


Isn't Tú You in spanish?


Yes, singular you, and informal.


Tu is "you" ... But why is it showing "Do you"?


Because it's a question.


It's "Tú", not "Tu".
As "tu" means "your".
And "Tú" means you (singular, informal)

The way to make questions in English, is by using an auxiliary at the beginning of the sentence, like "Does.....?"

In Spanish, you don't do it, you simply put the ¿...? marks, and you rise your intonation.


Seriously there is a s in bebes why not plurals


Having an 's' at the end of a word does not always make it plural. For example, "advantageous", "hazardous", "process", "possess", "copious", etc. are not plural in English. It does not seem so much of a stretch for a foreign language to have a similar occurrence, but for its conjugations.

Also, to answer your question, having an 's' in "bebes" does not make it plural because its translation in English is "you drink," with the "you" being informal and singular.


Are Tu and Usted the same thing?


No, they are not the same. While 'Tú' and 'Usted' both mean 'you' in the singular, they are used in different contexts.

'Tú' is considered informal, which means it is used among friends, family, peers, that sort of thing. It is also sometimes referred to as the familiar form, since that is when it is most commonly used. 'Usted' however is considered formal, which means its use is among people you don't know, individuals older than you (outside the family), business associates, your boss, etc. It is essentially a form used to indicate a degree of respect or formality.


Be careful to use "Tú" with the accent, as if you forget the accent, the word is not the same.

Tú = you (singular, informal)
Tu = your.


What does "you drink water" mean?


It means "Tú bebes agua" or "Bebes agua".

"Do you drink water?" means "¿Tú bebes agua? or ¿Bebes agua?


Please correct me if im wrong but I thought drink was a differnt word than bebe


Drink=Tomar, Beber.


Tomar is also "to take", literally, when not talking about a drink.


Yes, I know, but "Tomar" is much more common than "Beber" when you're talking about drinking somethin, at least in my country.


Yes, it depends on the regions. I just wrote that for other people who don't know what is "tomar".


I don't understand how to make a question in Spanish, it is supposed that tú means you, so how come is it (do you)


In Spanish we do not use auxiliaries, questions are basically the same as affirmative sentences but with a different intonation.


How do i say do you want to drink water?


¿(Usted) Quiere beber/tomar agua?

¿(Tú) Quieres beber/tomar agua?

¿(Informal vos) Querés beber/tomar agua?

¿(Formal vos) Queréis beber/tomar agua?

¿(Ustedes) Quieren beber/tomar agua?

¿(Vosotros) Queréis beber/tomar agua?


Why there are 2 question marks?


In Spanish we have two question marks ¿? The first one indicates when a question starts.


It replaces the "Does...." in English.


Why is ¿tú bebes agua? By this I mean tú means you but how is the bebes significant in acconplishing the "do you.." portion?


It's just a different way to make the question in Spanish, they don't use the "do" auxiliary.

So it's like saying "You drink water?"
It's not a correct question in English.
But it's the correct way in Spanish.


i am always confused with this because drink has no S but bebes does why is it like that?


In Spanish the verb changes depending on the person, number and tense. "Bebes" is just the correct conjugation of the verb "Beber" for the informal singular second person "Tú". Unlike English, in Spanish we don't need to say the subject because all the conjugations are different and you can assume it just by its conjugation. For example:


  • 1s) Yo bebo

  • 2s) Tú bebes (Informal) / Usted bebe (Formal) / Vos bebés (Very informal) / Vos bebéis (No longer used, only in books)

  • 3s) Él/Ella bebe

  • 1p) Nosotros/Nosotras bebemos

  • 2p) Ustedes beben / Vosotros/Vosotras bebéis

  • 3p) Ellos/Ellas beben


Can't we say "bebes agua?"


What does the inverted question mark at the start stands for?


I think that we need it in written Spanish because we don't use auxiliaries or change the word order, so it indicates when a question begins.


How does it pronoynce correctly? Its veve or bebe?


It depends on the region. Sometimes it's more "v", sometimes more "b", sometimes between both. Use a pronunciation half-way if you can. Or "b" or "v", whatever. They are not very distinct sounds in Spanish.


How does it pronounce correctly? It's bebe or veve?


We don't make any differences between the pronunciations of "V" and "B". They both are pronounced the same way always.


Unless the word with "V" or "B" is of Germanic origin, of course.


It makes no difference in the pronunciation.


Would "¿Bebes agua?" Be acceptable as well? Would it be "¿Bebe agua?" instead? I had seen another question here that was "¿Come pan?" Which was "Do you eat bread?" Im having trouble understanding why the question form dropped the -s, indicating "you" from the verb. Is this always the case?


Both answers are correct. Actually, there a lot of correct answers for sentences with "You":

  • ¿Bebes agua? (When "You" is translated as the informal "Tú", which a singular pronoun)

  • ¿Bebe agua? (When "You" is translated as the formal "Usted", which is a singular pronoun)

  • ¿Bebés agua? (When "You" is translated as the very informal "Vos", which is a singular pronoun)

  • ¿Bebéis agua? (When "You" is translated as the formal and no longer used "Vos", which is a singular pronoun)

  • ¿Beben agua? (When "You" is translated as "Ustedes", wich is a plural pronoun)

  • ¿Bebéis agua? (When "You" is translated as "Vosotros", which is a plural pronoun)


Is "vos" no longer used in Spain as well? I know that "vosotros" is not used in Mexico or most Latin American countries, but is still used in Spain.
Is it the same story with "vos" or has the pronoun fallen out of favor entirely?


I have understood that it's no longer in use, even in Spain, read these article about it RAE:

  1. Voseo reverencial. Consiste en el uso de vos para dirigirse con especial reverencia a la segunda persona gramatical, tanto del singular como del plural. Esta fórmula de tratamiento de tono elevado, común en épocas pasadas, solo se emplea hoy con algunos grados y títulos, en actos solemnes, o en textos literarios que reflejan el lenguaje de otras épocas.

I've only heard it in series portraying old times and I've also seen it a lot in old books.


Do I always need to add in an upside down question mark in the beginning of a sentence whenever I ask a question?


Yes. In fact, you need to add the upside-down question mark at the start of a question, even if this is in the middle of a sentence.

For example,
"Did you see the movie?" = "¿Tú viste la película?"
"I'm thirsty, do you have some water?" = "Yo tengo sed, ¿tú tienes algo de agua?"


I read a comment saying that in spanish you dont really distinguish between a b or a v sound but which is right or is it regional? The soumd clips are all over the place with it. Sometimes its bebe, them veve, then beve, im really lost. If there is no 'right' way then why cant duolingo just pick one? Im getting things wrong because its not consistent at all.


For us (Spanish speakers) there is no difference, I personally can't even hear the difference between all of them. If you were talking to me and you pronounced it in those three ways I wouldn't even notice that you did so. Maybe Duo doesn't have an established way of pronouncing it because nobody has. If you want to know how you should pronounce it, I think you should continue to pronounce "B"s like English "B"s and "V"s like english "V"s.


Best explanation I read or heard about b/v sounds in my life! Thank you.


What is the rule for verbs forms? I mean, for I (drink) verb was wrote as bebo For he and she (bebe) and now for you it is (bebes)


In the present tense the (regular) verb forms are:
yo bebo (I drink)
tú bebes (you drink)
él/ella/usted bebe (he drinks, she drinks, you [formal] drink)
nosotros bebemos (we drink)
vosotros bebéis (ya'll drink)
ellos/ellas/ustedes beben (they drink, you all drink)

For future questions like this a great resource is SpanishDict, which offers help pages on all the possible verb forms and conjugations.


It's "él", not "el". Because "el" = singular masculine the.


Oh! thank you, I didn't realize I forgot the accent. I'll edit that in right now. :)


What is the difference between bebe/bebo


bebe is for third person (he/she) bebo is for first person (I)

an extra note bebes is for second person (you) and also...

bebemos is for first person plural (we) bebéis is for second person plural (you all, you guys) beben is for third person plural (they, those guys)

Here is a chart to help: https://www.spanishdict.com/conjugate/beber


why it sounded like 'tu veves sa-u-a' to me? :/


Spanish does not natively make any distinction between "v" and "b" when spoken. The "b" sound we use in English is not normally used in Spanish, and is only really used when saying a word that originally came from a Germanic language.

As for the odd pronunciation of "agua", that's because she is speaking quickly and slurring the word, a common phenomenon that happens with any language. For example, many English speakers do not pronounce "kitten" as "kit-ten", like it is spelled. Many pronounce it as "kid-den" or "kih-en", due to slurring.


Is Do you drinks water (Tu bebes agua) Do you drink water (Tu bebe agua)


No, in Spanish the verbs have conjugation and it depends on the person (first, second, third) and the tense. "Tú bebe agua" is wrong in this case.


In English, you can't use "you", with "drinks".

The conjugation for "you" is "drink". You drink.
And the conjugation for he/she/it is "drinks". She drinks.

In Spanish, it is "Tú" not "Tu".
Because "tu" means "your", not "you".


I just needed to take out the s in agua and can someone please explain when to add the s or take it out


The conjugation of the verbs in Spanish depends on the person (first, second, third) and the number (singular, plural). You'll have to memorize it.


If the word is a noun, then the additional 's' is included to indicate something is plural (aka there is more than one of it). If the word is an adjective or adverb, then it depends on the plurality of the noun it follows, with them getting an 's' if the parent noun is plural. If the word is a verb, then it depends on the conjugation (which also depends on the gender and number of the subject noun).


Adverbs doesn't change according to anything, they are invariable.


I put "are you drinking water?" which makes more sense as a question someone might actually ask. Or I suppose it could be used as a joke question to ask someone who you never see drinking water.


You do not know the context. Maybe they ask after a game, like a football match, do you drink water?


That would still be "Are you drinking water?" or "Have you been drinking water?" You would not use the present tense with this kind of phrase, as it is a bit of a nonsense question.


No, that wouldn't if it's an habit. If you drink water every time, after the game. You would use it every time it's an habit.

"Do you drink water after the game" is not nonsensical.


Tu bebes agua? Is being used as a question. How would one say. You drink water. As a statement?


"Tú bebes agua." When framing questions in Spanish, changing the structure is very rarely a requirement like it is in English. One can just change the intonation to switch between a statement and a question.


This is wrong. The true translation is "You drink water". (This is only a correction, no offence, Duolingo -w-)


So, how do you ask questions in Spanish? Duo is right, this is a question, look at the intonation and the questions marks. It's the way to ask questions in Spanish, they don't use an auxiliary like "Does....?".


Why is "¿Bebes agua" not accepted


It should. If it wasn't accepted, please report it. Maybe you made a typo?


How would you say "Are you drinking water?"?


¿(Tú) Estás tomando agua?


!No en este momento! (Not right now! )


Yes, but I think you can also use "¿(Tú) bebes agua?
The rule for the use of the progressive form are less strict than in English.


How can I know if the sentence is a question by just listening? How does the pronouncing change?


By the intonation only. And if it's written, always by the ¿....?


where is the question mark? it only shows it here like wth


I always get confused on sentences like this. "Tu bebes agua?" is "Do you drink water?" But "Tu bebes agua" is "You drink water". Seems like it would be confusing unless it's on paper because without the question mark, it relies solely on the inflection of the voice. Is there are way to clarify that you are asking a question and not making a statement when talking verbally?


The intonation changes.


Be careful, it's "Tú".
Because "tu", without accent means "your".


No, with "you", in English, the conjugation is "drink".
With he, she, it, the conjugation is "drinks".

He drinks, she drinks, it drinks.
You drink.


Why does bebe have an the letter s at the end "bebes" Tu bebe agua? is Tu bebes agua? I'm aware adding an -s to a noun can make it plural how does this work with verbs?


No, adding an 's' to the end of a verb does not make it plural. "Bebes" is a verb conjugation, in this case, "tú bebes," meaning, "you drink".
The plural forms are:
Nosotros bebemos | We drink
Vosotros bebéis | Ya'll drink (only used in Spain)
Ellos/ellas/ustedes beben | They drink, you all drink


Why do they write '?' at first when it is already at last?


There's no reason for that. In my personal opinion I think that it might because in Spanish we do not change the word order in questions so in writen Spanish we wouldn't know that something is a question until we reach the end of it, so the ¿ helps us know where the question starts.


The upside-down question mark is an artificial addition to the Spanish language. In reality it is only here because some people at The Royal Spanish Academy thought it was a good idea.
But, it is theorized the inverted question mark was eventually adopted by the populace at large because of there being no change in the word order, like you said, making it a useful addition to the Spanish language.


Is there a way, besides tone of voice, to tell if it's a question or a statement? Tú bebes agua is a statement, but tú bebes agua? is a question


Sure. In most cases the question will begin with an interrogative (quién, qué, dónde, cuándo, por qué). If it does not, then the only way to tell is with a tonal variation, either going up or down on the final sound (which is known as "inflection").
For example, I could say, "Toast," which would be a statement. But if I said, "Toast?" it would sound different because of the inflection, and you would know I was asking about toast. It works the same way in Spanish.


I'm looking at a correct answer for the third time, it's marked as wrong. Never used to get this problem.


In the same lesson, I had a question that was to translate "Do you eat bread?" and I said "tu come pan?" and it said that it was supposed to be "come pan usted". My question is, why isnt this answer "bebe agua usted"? What's the difference?


It should be la agua, but why is it el agua


Hi RajithaYad,

Some words don't follow the rules - words that end in a have the la or una article. Agua is one of those words :)

Feminine nouns that begin with a stressed "a-" or "ha-" sound in Spanish use the articles "el" and “un” in the singular.

Source: https://www.spanishdict.com/translate/agua



Why is there an accent mark over Tù?


Two reasons:
1. To differentiate it from "tu", which means "your".
2. To show where the emphasis is. While the difference is slight, you do pronounce "tu" and "tú" slightly differently, as the accent indicates you put more stress on the "u" sound.


The correct conjugation for the pronoun "Tú" es "Bebes". "Bebe" would have been accepted if you had used the pronoun "Usted". Even though they both mean "You" you cannot mix their conjugations.


How do you Exactly pronounce "agua", because you don't really say the 'g' do you?


No, we do pronounce the "g".


Well, usually. It seems that in Spain they pronounce it with a very soft, nearly imperceptible "g". Personally I cannot detect the "g" at all and it just sounds like "ah-wa", but the pronunciation guide I looked at states the sound is still there.


My bad i put an s on it


i dont drink water


I did the whole app


Is this asking about preference? I wrote "would you like to have water?"


No, that would use a different conjugation. "Tú bebes" is in the present tense, while statements with "would" are in the conditional. In this case the conjugation would be, "Te gustaría".

Also, if we were saying, "Would you like to have water?" that would actually be, "¿Te gustaría hacer agua?"
"Would you like water?" would just be, "¿Te gustaría agua?"


I was wondering if you were to say this formally, would it be "Bebe aqua usted" ?


Yes, but you have a small mistake, it is "Agua" not "Aqua".


It says tú = you, but it also = do?


No, in Spanish there's not "Do", we don't have something like that when it is an auxiliar.


This helps me learn more Spanish


What does "Tu" mean? Does it mean do you?Or you


No, in Spanish there's not "Do", we don't have something like that when it is an auxiliar. And "Tú" means "You", but it is singular and informal. "Tu" without the accent mark is the posessive for the pronoun "Tú".

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