"La mayoría de nosotros no lo logró."
Translation:The majority of us did not achieve it.
If the subject of the sentence is "The majority of us" why are not using the 1st person plural? Shouldn't it be something like logramos?
Because "the majority" is a collective noun, in both English and Spanish, it converts a bunch of things/people into one thing "the majority" (note the singular, not "majorities") In English it works the same... we achieve our goals vs the majority achieves it's goal (third person singular forms)
In American English, collective nouns are grammatically singular. In British English, they are considered as plural.
the definition of logró included 'attained' yet 'no lo logró' was not translated to 'didn't attain it'. Can someone explain this better, to clear the confusion.
don't try all the translations duo suggests you, focus on the first one, even if it sounds weird at first
me too! and I don't think 'the majority of us were not able to do" which duo said was correct, is even an acceptable sentence.
I see 'the majority' as the subject of this sentence. "of us" is added to clarify/identify the subject. Nosotros isn't the subject, it could perhaps be identified as the prepositional phrase object. IMO however.
unless this is some kind of formal or technical statement," most of us "would be considerably more the norm for Americans and of course most of us would include what it is we didn't achieve. eg. most of us did not summit Everest
I wish the spoken practices would tell you what portion of the sentence you were mispronouncing
Both of these "correct answers" are totally wrong. This is what I wrote to Duo:
"Most of us weren't able to do" = totally, completely, unequivocally wrong. No one would ever say that in English. You might say "...weren't able to do it" but never just "... able to do." However, it's MUCH more common just to say "we weren't able to" or, in this case, "most of us weren't able to." This is a sentence you would say if someone asked you whether you were able to do a certain thing or not (e.g., "Was your team able to make it to practice after you all got food poisoning the other night?" "No, most of us weren't able to.). Also, the other 'correct' answer, "The majority of us did not achieve it," is not something anyone would ever say in English. The phrase "the majority of us" is not ever said by English speakers. The only time anyone says "the majority" is when talking about elections or other public issues, and we always just say "the majority," not "the majority of X" (rather, English speakers would say "most of X" instead).
Why is "The majority of us were not able to achieve it" not correct but "The majority of us were not able to do it" correct?
Same problem, and I did report it. They also said " the majority of us did not achieve it" was correct! Is there some difference between "did not" and "were not able to" in Spanish?
Perhaps the phrase no lo logro' specifically means "did not achieve it".
If this is bad information, someone please reply to me so I can correct my thinking.
They now accept "Most of us couldn't do it," which seems like a reasonably good translation of the sense of the sentence into English idiom.
What's wrong with "The majority of us didn't get it"? It was marked as wrong.
I wrote "The majority of us were UNABLE to do it." Duolingo marked this wrong saying that it should be "The majority of us were NOT ABLE to do it." I feel like "unable" should be accepted considering it means the exact same thing!!
I wrote "Most of us have not attained it," and Duolingo corrected it to "Most of us did not attained it."