No, "Je ne la verrai plus" could very well mean "I won't see her again" as well.
Why is "I will not see her any longer" wrong here? If it is wrong, how do you translate the English into French?
It seems perfectly correct to say "I will not see her any longer" (or) "I will not see her any more", IMO.
"Any longer" is actually quite correct as a substitute for "any more", but I think it is becoming a bit archaic (depending, I'm sure, on the community of English speakers you frequent).
"Anymore", on the other hand, isn't English at all. It's a two-word phrase. Tsk.
In fact, this "anymore" vs "any more" debate is not over, as far as I know.
I personally use both of them indistinctly, but some people say there is a difference. And some other people say that "anymore" doesn't exist.
If native English speakers are divided on a word or an expression, I usually take the side providing the most convenient way ^^.
Ha. Until I met this idea here, I had never even heard there was a debate on this point. I am 65, born and raised in California, but living in British Columbia since I was 21. The notion that "any more" and "anymore" are two different terms, with specific rules for which means what, is quite a novelty to me. I have done some research and I recognize that this distinction is now widely adopted in the States, though not, it seems in the UK. A correspondent on another thread tells me it is also widespread in Australia. Apparently this shift has occurred since I've been away. See what happens when you turn your back? ;>)
I'm afraid "anymore" still looks faintly ridiculous to me (and my inner ear runs the words together quite ludicrously), but I have no doubt it is the coming thing. For myself, I shall stick to the two-word form for all meanings, but I shall refrain from condemning other choices..
why can't "la" not be translated to mean "it" if it is reference to a feminine noun?
It should be indeed.
- "Je ne verrai plus cette peinture." = "Je ne la verrai plus."
- "I won't see this painting anymore." = "I won't see it anymore."
Is there any pronunciation difference between verrai and verrais? For the listening exercise should both be accepted as answers?
Edited: Ah, the future vs. the conditional. I think verrai is supposed to end with an AY sound like in "today" but "verrais" is supposed to end with an EH sound like in "bet".
"I won't see her again" and "I will never see her again" are fairly different meanings, and the same would be true in French between "Je ne la verrai plus" and "Je ne la verrai plus jamais".
As the saying goes : Il ne faut jamais dire jamais :)
I disagree and I reported it. Yes, there are contexts where "never again" is more forceful, but logically and in many use cases, they are equivalent.
is "je ne la verrais plus" grammatically correct? i'm thinking the past and future tenses would sound exactly the same. for me, this was presented as a listening exercise.
The imparfait form of "voir" would be "voyais." So no, it would not sound the same.
"I will see her no more, accepted." DL seems to approve the blunt statement more often, I think.