Just had the same question. I think it has to be "he", because "enfermo" is the masculinum ending. For the femininum form the correct inflection would be: "enferma"
Ah, that explains it! I keep forgetting that you have to match the masculine and fem. Ok. I get it now. Hmmm. Note to my brain: please start remembering this!
What's the difference between "mala" and "enferma"? I have heard someone said that "enferma" means "sick" as in "socially disgusting". Is this true?
Hola Huysan: In the GRAN DICCIONARIO OXFORD, there are about 50 uses for the word "malo" so it is difficult to zero in on any one definition, but, yes, one of the definitions is "sick" or "ill", especially used in Mexico. And, yes, another one is "horrible" or "nasty" or "mean" or "evil". CHAU
Hi Cynthia, I was wondering the same thing so I looked it up....
When "u" or "i" is paired with another vowel, they form a diphthong. Accent mark is used to indicate an exception to this - when "u" or "i" should be considered as a separate vowel and syllable.
example: policía; oído; actúo; grúa
Esta can be he/she/it. The masculine ending of enfermo, as opposed to the feminine ending enferma, narrows esta down to either he or it.
Is a sentence like this normal? I expected to see a subject pronoun, but I see the conjugation of estar provides some information.
I had the same question, but, from the other comments, I believe I have figured it out. It is expressed in the word "está" which means either "he is" or "she is" or "it is." In this sentence, it has to be "he is" because, as already pointed out by others, the word "enfermo" tells you that the subject is masculine. It can't be " it is" because you wouldn't say "it is sick."