"No ves la leche."
Translation:You do not see the milk.
How does one determine that the implied subject is "you"? I thought it was "I".
"Ves" Ve is see If they give 'veo' it means I see If they give 'ves' it means you see If they give 'ven' it means they see
Go use pimpselur method, it is more simplified, has complete sentence architecture regardless of verbs etc. Plus, its liatening and pronouncing. I dont think i can learn the verbs with dl, there is no structure taught.
Or like your son standing staring into the refrigerator, staring at the milk, and asking, "Donde es la leche?"
I kind of saw it as an accusatory remark given between distraught spouses "don't you see the milk? staring daggers"
In English that would be interpreted as a command without the subject pronoun. That wouldn't really make any sense, and is definitely not what the Spanish means.
you "dont" see / you "cant" see = what is the correct translation here? Can it mean both??
You don't see = No ves
You can't see = No puedes ver.
Remember that whenever you see can, could or any form of to be able to you will find the verb poder.
How can you tell when it's "you..." or "I..." when it doesn't make that distinction?
The verb endings change in regard to subject. With most verbs an "o" ending (ie veo) means "I see" whereas "es" (ves) means you see
I put..."you don't see the milk." Can anyone translate what i put and maybe explain do not and did not? Thanks everyone
You didn't see the milk would be No viste la leche. I think it is the negative that is messing you up, along with this somewhat unusual sentence. Did you see is the past tense of do you see.
Please explain voy ves etc. No voy la leche is I don't see the milk? I am not sure if im getting this.