"À cause de qui ?"

Translation:Because of whom?

April 7, 2013

This discussion is locked.


What is the difference between "à cause de" and "parce que"? Would it ever be correct to say "parce que de" to mean "because of"?


Answer to this question is provided in another thread. I'm quoting here the person who gave this answer:

-- "À cause de is used when it is [because of] a noun, parce que is used when there is [because] some sentence (verb involved):

À cause de ton serpent - Because of [your snake] - your snake is a noun. Parce que ton serpent a mangé tout le fromage - Because [your snake ate all the cheese]

À cause de ma faim - Because of [my hunger]. Parce que j'ai faim! - Because [I am hungry]!" --


Will it be pronounced "aah-kohz duh kee?"


Would "Caused by whom?" be an acceptable translation of this? I thought that "À cause de" focused on the root cause of something, more so than "parce que" or "car". Am I inventing usage cases here?


"caused by" should be a valid translation, at least in cases as "i have a headache - caused by whom?" (j'ai une migraine - à cause de qui?), but there are other cases when "because of" is more suitable "I am unemployed - because of whom?" (je suis au chomage - à cause de qui?)


Shouldn't "because of who?" be acceptable as well? I only ever use or see "whom" used in English papers.


It's used colloquially but isn't grammatically correct. If you can substitute the word "him" or "her" in place of "who/whom" it should be "whom". If you would need to use "he" or "she" then it is "who"

"For whom does the bell toll?" "[It tolls] for him"

"Who goes there?" "She [does]"


I think the shift from colloquial to standard began a good while ago and "who" is certainly understood and accepted in both speech and writing these days. In fact, I would dare say using "whom" would count as marked language, standing out when in use (not as an error, simply as a somewhat outdated form).


Indeed. In fact, DUO now accepts "Because of who?"


Not in a school or university setting anyway, it wouldn't be acceptable. I would never dare say or write "to who".


is there another way this can be worded and still be correct?


can it be "due to who"? I always thought of it as "due to the cause of".


Why isn't "Because of that?" acceptable?


"Because of that" = "À cause de ça" or "À cause de cela"


I thought I knew this one - but I was wrong. I said "Whose fault?" thinking "a cause de" implied fault. A native speaker seemed to imply that to me. Could someone help me out here?


"à cause de" means "because of" and it's often used for negative situations/consequences. However, it doesn't necessarily imply "fault". http://french.about.com/od/vocabulary/a/a-cause-de.htm


Thanks very much!


[So that I can incinerate him/her...]


Sounds like she says, "À quand", rather than "À cause". Is it an error?


It sounds like "à cause de" to me. Here's what "quand" sounds like = (pronounced by native speakers) http://www.forvo.com/search/quand/

Here's "cause" = http://www.forvo.com/search/cause/fr/


I hear, "Uh coze duh"


Is anyone else hearing "À cause de TEE" or "CHEE"? Instead of "KEE"? I had this problem in the listening/write in French exercise with the same sentence too.


What is the difference between "À cause de" and "car" Because I've seen in duolingo that "car" means "because". It all depends on the meaning?


"À cause de" means "because of". "Car" and "parce que" mean "because".

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