79 Comments
The sentence doesn't qualify the pronoun 'los', therefore the translation is both 'i do not see you' and 'I do not see them'. Both are correct. Just because Duo shows only one correct answer, it does not mean there aren't other correct answers.
So "Yo no te veo" would work for "I don't see you?"
And, "Yo no los veo a nosotros" for "I don't see us?"
I am not sure why you would want to say 'I don't see us' but if you did it would be 'Yo no nos veo. Te means 'you' and 'nosotros' means 'we'.
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When you and a friend are looking at a photo of a large group of people, for example.
It would be a plural "you" (ustedes), but could "Yo no vos veo" work to convey the same thing?
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I think it is referring to ustedes instead of ellos/ellas, though this should have been clarified as it's too ambiguous.
Yo no te veo. I dont see you. This is a mistake in the program i think. Yo no los veo means i don't see them.
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No les veo = I do not see ... you all / them. (Neutral) No las / los veo = I do not see them (fem ... mas). No te veo. I do not see you.
He would be right if the sentence said that, but it doesn't. 'No te veo' means I don't see you, as in familiar, family, or friendship mode (Tú). The sentence in this lesson is formal plural you, ustedes or 'them' Yo no los veo has two meanings 1) I see you (all) or 2) I see them.
I am sure in Mexico the use of ustedes is used for plural you (all) for the plural familiar you (Tú) as well as the plural you (all) for formal ustedes.
In English, "you" can mean a group of people. For instance, a friend is talking with the football team, " I didn't see you at the playoffs."
Hi nWnlj, I don't get what you mean? los is you formal plural you in Spain but both formal plural you and informal plural you in Latin America. It also means the direct object pronoun 'them'. Singular formal you (usted) is used in both Spain and Latin America.
I think what nWnIJ is trying to say, is that the meaning of 'los veo', which Duo also gives, is both 'you' and 'them', (plural). My question is how do you know when someone is referring to one or the other, when you're reading something??
Duolingo should be saying the word "ya'll" when referring to ustedes. This would clear up a lot of confusion.
There is more than one way to say a plural "you" with clarification in the U.S. Southerners would say "ya'll", but others might say "all of you", "you guys", "the lot of you", "youins", "you and yours", etc.
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I am a bit confused, for this to translate as such shouldn't it be 'Yo no los veo a ustedes'? As it is now it seems to say at least in my mind 'I do not see' or would that be Yo no veo? By simply adding the pronoun i.e las/los/lo/etc does the context of adding los in the sentence now signify 'a ellos' or 'a ustedes'?
you can include "a ustedes" but los is replacing it so it would be like saying: I do not see you you. Or if a specific thing: I do not see it the dog. But in spanish it's very common to say it with the "double specification" or what you wan't to call it since it is quite unclear who it refers to. You are right los/los etc. mean '(to) them'.
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This set of exercises is quite poor. It is confusing me rather than clarifying anything, so thanks for all the comments which are much more helpful.
It's DuoLingo's very common "ustedes" syndrome, where they like making plural second person interpretations of Spanish sentences the main translation. This could mean "I don't see you" if you were talking to more than one person. It could also mean "them" as there is nothing in the sentence to clarify beyond the fact that the speaker does not see some plural group of people or objects.
Yes, the plural of el is los. Those are articles. This "los" however is not the plural of el, but the plural direct object pronoun. It can mean them ( masculine or mixed group with at least one male) It can mean objects that are masculine in Spanish. It can mean plural formal you. It takes the place of ellos, or ustedes. http://spanish.about.com/od/pronouns/a/direct_objects.htm
"los" means "them [masculine]" or "you [masc. plural]" if it's being a clitic pronoun--if it shows up before a verb--but it means "the [masc. pl.]" if it's hanging out with a noun or adjective.
Lo/Los is direct object -- Yo los veo = I see them
Le/Les is indirect object -- Yo les leo un libro = I read a book to them
I guess when it says ”another translation: I dont you” they mean ”i dont see you all”
Okay soooo my ONLY choice was "you" .. making my answer, "I do not see you" and yeah it came out right because again, "you" was my ONLY option, .... how is this possible??
Yes, I don't see you, yo no los veo (a ustedes).
You like singular: Yo no te veo. I don't see you.
"imagine" for "veo" is not accepted, but the first suggestion is "imagine" and the "see" suggestion was on the third. :/
The duolingo translation on the question page differs from that on the comments page, one is "i see them" the other is "i see you (plural), what up with that
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"Los" in this context can either refer to the third person "ellos", meaning them, or the second person "ustedes", meaning you (formal plural).
Thanks for the info, but my qiestion was regarding why duolingo puts one correct answer on one page and another cirrect answer on another page. Why not put ALL correct answers in one place.
From what I have learned in the last 2 years, Duo claims to have multiple correct answers. It is my experience that these multiple correct answers get rotated. But why Duo will has one correct answer on one page and another correct answer on another page, I can't answer. It happens sometimes because the computer is rotating the correct answers. Sometimes Duo will give alternate answers (one or two), but seems to like another one better. There really is nothing you can do about it. You are free to hit the report, and explain, and what is happening to you when this happens.
The Duo staff itself is made up of so many people, it is rare that someone from the staff would read your comment here in the discussion forums, because they are meant for discussion of the sentences by the users, I can not see you getting a satisfactory answer here. I do not see the support button any longer that was on the far left. So I assume that has been removed. It can certainly be frustrating sometimes, right?
Lo/Me = I/me Te = you (as in "te digo"="i tell you") Le = him (as in "ella or el le lee un ") Les =them (as/n ellos les leen un ") Nos = us (as in "él nos leemos un _")
... please let me know if ive erred but i think this explains this stuff
Since 'los' can mean both 'you' ( ustedes) plural AND 'them', the use of 'you' is correct.
If Duo had asked you to translate from English to Spanish, you could indeed translate 'Yo no las veo'.
Why we didn't say for "I don't see you" ( yo no les veo) as I don't see the direct adj
Does "Yo no los veo" and "Yo no veo ustedes" mean the same thing? If yes, when do you use what?
Yo no veo ustedes is not correct. Yo no los veo A ustedes it would be ok. The pronoun LOS replaces USTEDES, so you do not need to use both, but it´s correct.
In english we would rarely say "i cant see you" and we mean you plural. I would say "i cant see either of you", or "i cant see you guys". But occasionally we do say it.
this might sound silly but am kinda confused here..so "los" and "ellos/ellas" means them so when do i know when to use either of the two...can i substitute one for d other? for instance is it correct to say "yo no ellos veo?" or "no ellos veo?" on d last note i know ellas/ellos also means they.
ellos/ellas" mean 'they', and are subject pronouns. 'los,las' mean 'them' and are direct object pronouns. You can't substitute one for other.
Why is the "yo" necessary? Could you say "No los veo" and it be just as effective?
It isn't. It's just more common to us speak that way. Probably beacause in this sentence we are trying to enfatise the pronoun.
Les vs Los
Les= To Them(f/m) and ustedes Los=Them(masculine)
When and when not to use these depends on the context and sentence you are saying. Example: Él LES escribe a ellos= He writes them OR He writes to them -This means that He is writing a letter to them(a group of males or a mixed gender group in this case)
Él LOS escribe Translate to the same thing He writes them BUT it literally means that He is writing Them on a piece of paper, rather than sending Them a letter. Which doesn't make sense, so you wouldn't use LOS in this case.
I put "I don't see them" as the answer and duolingo rejected it, saying the answer is "I do not see them." And there's no way to report that my answer should be accepted in a test out. Sigh.
I just can't understand, why at the previous lessons the application was trying to teach us differently...Like "yo no veo a ellos" was in previous lessons and now the correct way to translate the sentence is "yo no los veo"...There are many examples like this...I just don't get it!
The system responded: "I do not see it". "los" is plural so the system's response must not be correct.
