"We have the best."
Translation:Tenemos los mejores.
Think of it like this...anytime u have an adjective unknow and u can substitute "thing" with it "lo" comes before it.
Example. To say "we have the best" is unknow what "it" is one could then say..."we have the best thing" so use "lo mejor" for best "thing".
Another: "juan had the worst" here u can say "worst thing" which implies the use of "lo peor"..."juan tenía lo peor"
I believe it can be "Tenemos lo/la mejor" as well, if you're talking about the concept of "the best" of an implied singular noun. Example: Group A: "We have the best idea." "Tenemos la idea mejor." Group B: "No, we have the best." "No, tenemos la mejor." But this requires context to work.
Please correct me if I'm wrong, as I'm not a native speaker.
If I understand the grammar correctly, "los mejores" is the plural of "lo mejor" in this sentence. Let's analyze the sentence "Tenemos lo mejor." ("We have the best.") for a moment. Notice that the definite article here is "lo mejor" rather than "el mejor". Why is this? It is because "mejor" is acting as an ambiguous noun rather than adjective. In fact, "lo mejor" is grammatically neuter gender (a very rare occurrence in Spanish), even though it looks masculine. The same goes for "los mejores" in this case: "los mejores" is simply a plural neuter noun—neither masculine nor feminine. Make sense?