"No tengo tiempo para eso, y además no tengo dinero."
Translation:I do not have time for that, and I also do not have any money.
"I don't have time for that, and besides, I don't have the money." --- would be more natural.
What is it in this sentence that decides it should be " any" money? One might also say " the " money, but this was marked as wrong!
Because that would require a definite article: "...no tengo el dinero". And that is used when talking about specific money which is a different meaning from this phrase.
Not sure why you need the pronoun "I" in the second clause when it's conjugated "no tengo dinero". Any explan
It is OK with or without the "yo". It means exactly the same thing, unless the speaker wanted to emphasize the "yo" it can be included, but, again, the written translation would be the same, with or without.
Hi - not sure if this is what you mean, but are you confusing "y" with "yo"? It's easy to do at first glance. I don't see a pronoun in the second clause, it's implied in the verb conjugation of tengo, as you say.
If you're talking about the english translation... I agree, I'm not sure that's needed at all.
I believe what wfufidio is referring to is that "I do not have time for that, and also do not have money." is not accepted as a correct answer because the I is not restated in the second clause.
Me gusta el juego! Oh, A mi tambien. (i like the game! Oh, me too.) Yo quiero una manzana. Yo tambien. (I want an apple, Me too.) But: Me gustan los gatos y ademas los perros. (I like cats and dogs aswell.) A mi tambien. (Me too [likez them] )
Tambien (and tampoco [neither]) are used more in reply, ademas in an enumeration.
"También" means "also", "too" (when "too" means "also"), or "as well".
"Además" means "besides", "As well as [that]" or "in addition [to]".
the explanation on the front page states that the masculine singular form is "ese", yet all the examples I've seen so far in the lessons use "eso". Can anyone explain that?
you're quite right... I obviously noticed the headline and skipped over the rest of it...
In the English translation, the pronoun "I" should not be necessary for an accurate translation.
for adema[']s I put "and another thing." Is this not a synonym for furthermore?
I like the "furthermore" word for "además" because the "..más" is a good mnemonic for ".more" and thankfully DL likes it
ademas means 'besides' or 'what is more' not what 'has' more as shown in one of the English possible answers
i got counted wrong because i put further more instead of furthermore! my english messes me up worse than my spanish, how embarrassing
Wrong because I used "the" instead of "any"; no word like ninguna in sentence and many times in Spanish, the article is used when it is not used in English??? This is a tricky one.
As a mother tongue speaker of English, my immediate take on it idiomatically would be , "I do not have the time nor the money for that" Shorter form would be "I don't have time or money for that" But I accept your judgements.. of what one should say...
Lots of people say "and furthermore". It's a little bit dated, but still perfectly valid English. You're probably more likely to see it written rather than spoken.
I understand that you are trying to make a point about speaking clearly, and to an extent I agree with the sentiment. There is a lot of "fluff" in everyday speech. However, the reality is that people do not talk like robots and they do include "unnecessary" words. You have used them yourself in your past 2 messages ("actually" and "well" were not required in either sentence). Words like these ARE used, and any language would be poorer without them. A sweeping statement like "furthermore is never used" is just plain wrong, and to say that using extra verbiage is "sloppy and sad" is purely your opinion and - in my opinion - also wrong. If used appropriately it is not sloppy to say "and furthermore". Whether or not it's "sad" I'm not sure.
i agree. language is always a changing thing unless it's a dead language like latin. and i've heard people plenty of times use and furthermore. personally i wouldn't write a sentence like that in english, but i was trying to translate y, ademas... and, furthermore. translation of languages are always going to be somewhat loose because all languages are slightly different with what the exact content a word means; this is also true for different dialects of the same language
NO ,WHAT I WAS REFERRING TO WAS :"AND FURTHERMORE " WHEN JUST FURTHERMORE IS APPROPRIATE, MY DICTION AND SYNTAX IS PRECISE WITHOUT VERBIAGE. You are mistaken.
Sorry I haven't got the energy for this anymore. You've won the argument by typing in capitals, congratulations.