"Take me to the hospital, please."
Translation:Llévame al hospital, por favor.
The object pronouns definitely attach to the right side of commands under most circumstances. (I would've said they always do, but Mavry's a native speaker; I'm curious to hear if there really are situations where there are exceptions to that rule.)
Edit: OK, I'm sticking with "always". The case he was talking about is one where you use the indicative to politely indicate a request. With an actual imperative, the pronoun will always be glued onto the right side.
I think the accent is only to preserve the infinitive when combined with me. So it would be "me lleve" but "llevéme" only to modify where the accent goes when attached with "me" ... make sense?
The explicit usted form ("Usted lléveme al hospital, por favor.") isn't accepted as an answer. The implicit usted form ("Lléveme al hospital, por favor.") is accepted, however.
This doesn't seem to follow the subjunctive rule: According to the "start with yo, drop o, add e, es, e, etc. for AR verbs, a, as, a etc. for ER / IR verbs, this should be llevEme al hospital, por favor. Wracking my brain to figure out why this does not follow what I've learned...
Lleve is the subjunctive, and the usted command because the usted command comes from the subjunctive. So it would be "Lléveme al hospital."
"Llévame (with a) al hospital," Duo's answer, is the affirmative tú command, which is not from the subjunctive but rather the same as the 3rd person present indicative.
So the commands are: aff. tú = llévame; neg tú = no me lleves ; aff. Ud. = lléveme; neg Ud. = no me lleve.
The aff. tú command is the one that doesn't come from the subjunctive.