"I like French food."
Translation:Me gusta la comida francesa.
why is the article la required here if the English sentence doesn't need one? Do I always have to use an article when it comes to "comida"?
I do not know why but it seems to be a rule that any noun being liked(gustar), will always be preceded by an article.
Usually when talking about a general subject or idea u need an article like. Who studies science is, quien(que) estudia la ciencia
I didn't need the article in "She likes Chinese food". Why do I need it here?
Yes when using gustar you use the article before a noun. Sadly my best explination is that this is simply the gustar construction. Sorry.
I was allowed to leave out the definite artice when the food was chinese!
Why is it required here when it was not required in "she eats mexican food?"=="Ella come comida mexicana?"
There seems to be some general confusion here regarding the use of the definite article. For this particular exercise, using gustar, the definite article is required. The same is true for odiar, to hate. Outside of situations such as these, where the definite article appears by convention, you would not use the definite article. So, I want French food, I eat French food, I cook Chinese food, etc. do not take the definite article.
There are two rules operating here: 1) use a definite article to express likes and dislikes 2) don't use a definite article for undefined/undetermined quantities of a countable noun
Although the second rule usually applies, it is overridden, so to speak, by the first rule.
Why not « J'aime bien des nourritures françaises »?
Edit: Nevermind, I got used to my french tree, that word "french" tricked me.
In a previous qu. I want french food, I put in la and it said I'm wrong. Now I omit it and it says I'm wrong. Grrr!
Actually, using me gusta, te gusta etc., it needs an article, I found. I saw a Spanish person writing their profile and they wrote "I like the cars".
Why can't I switch positions? I wrote "La comida francesa me gusta" and it was apparently wrong. I thought there wasn't that much difference in Spanish, or is there? Can somebody explain?
It is used like that, I wrote the same thing, and native speakers know the actual meaning of the word and they may write like you said, or say it. It makes more sense in Spanish than it is in English. Americans only use «me gusta» because it is easy for them. Gustar literally means to be pleasing to or to be liked by, which requires the IOP[Me, Te, Le, Nos, Os, Les].