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  5. "Me gusta que la gente pase p…

"Me gusta que la gente pase por aquí."

Translation:I like that people pass through here.

April 12, 2013



I want to know why this takes the subjunctive??? any help is appreciated


plauben - among other meanings the subjunctive is used after a verb that express doubt/fear/JOY/hope/sorrow or some other emotions. In this sentence the "ME GUSTA" expresses "JOY" hence the subjunctive "pase" is used.


Do you mean that every time we use gustar we need to use the subjunctive?


Everytime you use gustar and then have to conjugate a verb after that (in that case the 'que' will be there). but that doesn't happen all (or even most) of the time. 'me gusta comer' is infinitive and thus not subjuctive.


No, "gustar" plus "que" does not always require the subjunctive. Or, at least, you will see this construction with and without the subjunctive.


¨Me gusta¨ means that something pleases me Eg I don't care what the others think, I like you.-- ¨No me importa lo que piensen los demás, me gustas. ¨

Note that i like you (you please me) in the Indicative but when I am pleased that you do something for me it changes to subjunctive.

I like it that you do that for me . --¨Me gusta que hagas eso para mí¨


Because the sentence does not express that people actually will pass by/through here any time soon, or ever again. The speaker would like it, if they did, but s/he doesn't know if they will.


This is present tense, so it's not an expression of doubt, but instead an expression of emotion. If it were "me gustaria que la gente pase por aqui", then it will still be subjunctive but for an expression of doubt rather than emotion.


You do not have to be in conditional to require a shift into subjunctive. Certain verbs, even in plain present tense, automatically shift you into subjunctive. Querer is one of these: Yo quiero que tú entiendas. I want you to understand. (Note that "entiendas" is a subjunctive form of "entender".) I don't know if you actually do or even will understand, but I would like it if you did. Hence: doubt, supposition, speculation, counter-factuals. Subjunctive.

There are many examples of these verbs here: http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/subj1.htm

There are also formulations using an impersonal "es" that work like this. Like, "Es posible que..." The phrase, "It is possible that..." automatically introduces doubt. It doesn't have to be "Sería posible que..."


I agree completely, I was just noticing that you had translated "me gusta" as "would like" in your response.


"Me gustaría que la gente pasara por aquí".


I believe that this because it is an expression of opinion.


Could it mean, in a sense, "I wish that people would pass through here", or "I would like [that] people pass through here"?


I'm not sure, but I know that the Owl rejected "I would like people to pass through here."


I put 'i would like the people to go through here' and was rejected. I wonder if was because of the 'the' or the use of 'go'. I will report it just in case that my translation could be accepted. Thanks!


Se acepta "I like that people go through here."


I'm glad that was accepted. Actually I have written in my note book:

"I like (it) that people pass through here."

Using the extra "it" in English captures the meaning, clarifies the sentence and makes it sound more natural.

Now I just have to remember this construction in a live conversation!!


That's now accepted.


Wouldn't that be "me gustaria"? (me gustaria is usually "I would like," right?)


If you want to literally translate the grammar at a word-for-word level, yeah, that's kinda true. But then, if you were going to try to do that, you'd be translating "gustar" as "to please". "Me gusta manzanas," is, "Apples please me," which is why you see the object pronoun "me", not the subject pronoun "yo".

Add in the additional layer of complication that the clause is in subjunctive. The current "canonical" translation misses the meaning in a critical way. It sounds like it's asserting that people are passing through here, and I like that. Which is wrong. It's saying that it pleases me for people to pass through here, without saying that they are passing right now. That's kind of the core difference between indicative and subjunctive.

You could translate this as something like, "When people pass through here it pleases me," but that sounds pretty awkward. In general, "Me gusta que [subjunctive clause]," ends up translating most comfortably to English as something like, "I like it when" or "I would like". We don't have the same set of moods and tenses as Spanish, so you can't expect to map back and forth among them on a 1:1 basis.


Thank you. My understanding of the subjunctive mood is quite limited. I used the translation they provided, but wondered if "would like" worked.


His Spanish is shaky. "I like apples" is "Me gustan las manzanas." It is not "Me gusta manzanas."


Hey Auros, I've come across your explanations a number of times by now and I've always admired how knowledgeable and down to the point your comments were. Are you a teacher, linguist or an A student?


"Me gusta" implies a sense of enjoyment. It please the speaker. "I wish" lacks that sense; it gives more a sense of longing for something to happen. I would like = "me gustaría" This latter phrase implies a condition, an "if".


In that area, how about " i like that people might pass through here?" Or would thta require quizas?


The subjunctive mood is used to express everything except certainty and objectivity: things like doubt, uncertainty, subjectivity, etc. The difference between indicative and subjunctive is the difference between certainty/objectivity (indicative) and possibility/subjectivity (subjunctive).


when a subject of a sentence wants, likes, hopes, requires or expects (etc) that a different object (not themselves) does some thing then subjunctive is used. Eg. I want (that i) to go --¨quiero ir¨ i want you to go---¨quiero que vayas¨


How is "I like the people passing by here" not correct... but "I like the people pass by here" correct. Makes no sense. "I like the people pass by here" ins't even grammatically correct.


The Spanish doesn't mean liking the people, it means liking where they go. “I like the people passing by here.” would be ‘Me gusta la gente QUE pase por aquí.’. The translation accepted is “I like THAT people pass by here.”, not “I like THE people pass by here.”.


It's the difference between putting the word que in that sentence before or after the words la gente. To do so gives the sentence an entirely different meaning. You would be correct if que were to follow gente.


Duo now accepts your answer.--1/16/2019


pase as a new word is defined as "go through" - why is this not correct?


“I like that people go through here.” is also a valid translation of ‘Me gusta que la gente pase por aquí.’. If it's not accepted, please report it using the ‘Report a Problem’ button.


"I like the people come through here." isn't correct english, maybe "coming through" or "to come through" would be better.


The natural "coming through" was not accepted August 3.


I like the people to go through here! Why is that wrong? The correct answer they showed me does not sound good English...........I like people go throughf here!!! H..e....l....p!


It isn't what the sentence means. It expresses that you like the currently true fact that people go through here. It is not an expression of desire.

For example, "I like that children go to school", is different to, "I like the children to go to school".


“I like people to go through here.” would be ‘Me gustaría que la gente pase por aquí.’.

It seems you overlooked the word “that” in Duolingo's correct translation.


"I like people go through here" was presented as one of Duolingo's correct translations for me as well. The word "that" isn't there.


Yuck! That sounds like a bad translation from Chinese. It's not just an incorrect translation, it's incorrect English.

…or did you just accidentally leave out the word “to”?


Yet Duo has accepted similar translations to suziemalt's in the past. Also, your sentence also has "que." Can you make us understand why not including "that" in the translation is okay in one sentence but not okay in the other?


In English, you can say either (A) “I prefer [the fact] that the horse passes by here.”, or (B) “I [would] prefer the horse to pass by here.”. With the “that”-clause construction (A), the whole subordinate sentence “The horse passes by here.” is treated as the direct object of the main verb “prefer”. But with the “to”+infinitive construction (B), the subject “The horse” of the subordinate clause is promoted to the direct object of the main verb “prefer”, and the subordinate verb “passes” is turned into an infinitive “to pass”.

[I've substituted “prefer” for “like” to avoid the subject-versus-object confusion of the Spanish ‘gustar’; and I've substituted “horse” for “people” to highlight the distinction between the finite form “passes” and the non-finite form “to pass”.]

In Spanish, you can say (A) ‘Prefiero [el hecho de] que el caballo pase por aquí.’, where the ‘que’-clause works exactly like the English “that”-clause. But Spanish has no counterpart to the “to”+infinitive clause. Instead, you'd say (C) ‘Prefiero|Preferiría [la eventualidad de] que el caballo pase por aquí.’ = “I [would] prefer [the eventuality] that the horse pass by here”. So in Spanish, both expressions use the word ‘que’.

The English “to”+infinitive construction is actually really weird, because semantically, it doesn't make sense for the subject of the subordinate clause to be the object of the main verb: “I prefer the horse to pass by here.” doesn't mean “I prefer the horse”. Maybe I hate that horse; I just want it to pass by over here so it doesn't eat my roses. In Spanish, if ‘el caballo’ is the object of the verb ‘prefiero’, then no matter how the sentence continues, it's clear that I prefer the horse.


Even with a very literal translation it should say "I like for people to pass by here." SO frustrating to a native and a Spanish teacher!


‘Me gusta que la gente pase por aquí.’ implies that people actually do pass by here; “I like for people to pass by here.” lacks that implication.


No, it doesn't. It's not I'd like for people to pass by here.


My apologies, I misread your translation. You're correct. The construction “I like for…” without the conditional mood doesn't exist in my dialect, but it's extremely common. Duolingo should definitely accept “I like for people to pass by here.”.

  • 1891

Well, I got bonked by the for. I'll complain.


You got bonked? Perhaps you're not English - bonking is something you wouldn't do here on DL!


I think you're thinking of "boinking"! Bonking can innocently occur anywhere.


If you try bonking in public here in England, you'll get arrested!


That's funny! In the U.S., getting bonked means to get hit. As in 'I got bonked on the head.' But boinking in public can get you arrested here.


Bonking, ❤❤❤❤❤❤❤❤...


Here in spain if you tell someone to come/go this way its "pase por aqui"


This is not good English - it should be 'I like the fact that people go through here' - I don't know if it was accepted as I did a literal translation and got it right, but it is poor grammar


I disagree. "I like that people go through here" sounds fine to me. And apparently it was even your first instinct too since you describe it as a "literal" translation. Maybe there once existed a rule against using "that" in this way... but if so, it's a bit out of date. I think your alternative is a good one, too, but I don't think the English phrase has to be phased that way.


If "gustar" triggers the requirement for the subjunctive, I'm now trying to remember the 500 previous usages of gustar I've seen here, to find out if I learned something wrong. Because I am pretty sure none of them were in the subjunctive.


we have only seen it as the only verb in the sentence or with an infinitive attached. 'I like to play sports' or 'I like running' is a very different meaning/use than 'I like that you (he, I, etc.) play sports'.


Wouldn't better English be "I like it that people pass through here"


For "Me gusta que la gente pase por aquí." one of the suggested translations is "I like that the people to passing by here." which to me does not sound like proper English. Can any native speaker confirm?

Also, is there a reason why "I like that the people are passing by here." should not be accepted?

Reported both problems on 22.04.2014.


You are absolutely right, hckoenig! That sounds like a non-native beginner speaking. I would have difficulty even trying to work out what the speaker was on about!


Right. I'm a native speaker of U.S. English. "I like that the people to passing by here" is not only improper English; it's really, really awful English.


I like people coming through here not allowed. "Corrected" to "I like people come through here!


What?!? That's not correct English.


Is the "by" or "through" really needed? Why not "I like that the people pass here." ?


Yes, it's needed. To "pass by" or "pass through" means a person is in the process of going somewhere. But "to pass" by itself has several completely different meanings in English. For example, a person can pass a test, or she can pass when playing a card game (meaning to give up one's turn), or he can pass for something he's not.


the subjunctive in Spanish is often translated in English by the conditional. "I would like people to pass through here", should be written as correct, shouldn't it?


Or 'walk past here', means the same thing as 'by', and should be accepted (assuming that I didn't make some other mistake (!!))) :)


Pase por aquí... stop by here. That's how I have heard it used. So I translated this as: I like people to stop by. Duo didn't like it. :(


Why is it "pase" instead of "pasa"?


It is the conjugation for the Subjunctive Mood.

Gustar que... is always followed by a verb in the subjunctive.



There is nothing subjunctive about the people passing by. They are really, in fact, doing it or the subject would not be enjoying it. It would truly be subjunctive if the writer liked the idea of people passing by.


In Spanish, the subjunctive is not only used to express doubt, but also to express will and to express emotion. The verb ‘gustarse que’ expresses an emotion, and as such always takes the subjunctive, whether the subject likes a fact or an idea.


Thanks for the explanation. I will try to remember the rule. But this is an unreasonable application of the subjunctive (and yes, language development is often unreasonable).


It's not unreasonable, it's how the subjunctive works. You have to learn it.


http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/subjunctive " of, relating to, or constituting a verb form or set of verb forms that represents a denoted act or state not as fact but as contingent or possible or viewed emotionally (as with doubt or desire)" I think it is significant here that the emotion aspect of the subjunctive refers to the feeling about what is desired or doubted, not about what is real. As I said in my original post the passing people are real, not something hoped for but already happening. There may be a rule of thumb that says 'gustarse que' always takes a subjunctive and this may well be the common practice of the language but in this case it is contrary to the idea of the subjunctive, a verb form that "...represents a denoted act ... not as fact...". "I would like that people pass through here." on the other hand would call for the subjunctive since the implication is that people do not, at present, pass through, or at least that the writer is not aware of them passing through.


This should explain it: http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/101054/gustar-que...subjuntivo#a59227

The subjunctive in English is used for many fewer purposes than the subjunctive in Spanish. You should look for a definition explicitly for Spanish.


Re: dofn2 Here is the definition from a Spanish diccionario that essentially repeats the English definition I gave. http://es.thefreedictionary.com/subjuntivo "subjuntivo, -va adj. Que se adjunta como elemento subordinario. adj.-m. gram. Díc. del conjunto de formas verbales que con esta modalidad manifiestan la posibilidad más o menos irreal de la acción significada por la base léxica del verbo. En oraciones formalmente independientes expresa duda, posibilidad, etc."


You need to look for a definition of the Spanish subjunctive from a grammar reference source; not a dictionary.

You aren't going to find a comprehensive definition of a complex grammatical construct in a dictionary. A dictionary provides an extremely brief precis and can't be comprehensive on wide-ranging technical and nuanced topics like this (hence its "etc").

People have linked useful resources... In short, you are talking about your likes and dislikes - hence subjunctive.


Hi dofn2. You advise me to consult a grammar reference. I have already conceded that there may be a rule of thumb and it may be the common practice. What I have been trying to point out is that the use of language is more than following rules. It is understanding the dynamics of grammar. The subjuntivo in English or Spanish is as I have already described. Perhaps you could point me to an authoritative Spanish grammar source that contradicts what I have been saying. [Later], Checking the grammar sources that I can google online, there is a consensus that Spanish uses the subjunctive when expressing emotion about real events. This is a rule of thumb that needs to be followed and it is an exception to the concept of subjunctive. It is unreasonable in that subjunctive refers to (unreal) events. I am curious to know why it might be considered reasonable.


Give me a break. This section needs a lot of work, several answers I have given are correct and yet it marks me down.

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