Ha is the 3rd person conjugation of Haber which will be followed by a past participle: •Ella ha comprado mucha ropa hoy (she has bought a lot of clothing today/she bought a lot of clothing today-Spain). • Él ha dicho la verdad (he has told the truth/he told the truth-Sp).
A is a preposition which will be followed by a verb in the infinitive or a person or a noun, etc.: • Voy a la tienda (I'm going to the store) • Voy a caminar por la playa (I'm going to walk along the beach).
a and ha have no distinguishing sound quality because the H is silent unless paired with C (Chico), but you'll be able to tell from context what you're hearing.
I disagree. Most authorities concur that "Voy" can be translated as either "I go" or "I am going." If I were asked something like "¿Adónde vas?" I would say "Voy a la piscina." In English, if I were asked "Where are you going?" I would say "I'm going to the pool." I would NOT say "I go to the pool." It would be understood, but it would mark me as a non-native English speaker.
Likewise in that context, if I tried to translate word-for-word into Spanish (como "estoy yendo...") it would be similarly understood, but awkward-sounding to hispanohablantes.
Yes. See my comment just above. But the "a" really has nothing to do with it... it just functions as a preposition ("to") in this context. The reason that it can be translated either way (as stated above) has much less to do with Spanish than it has to do with English. Translation is generally about conveying (as accurately as possible) the same idea/concept in a different language--not giving a word-for-word substitution.
Quite simply, this is a present tense statement in Spanish. To render it in English, make a present tense statement in English. "I go to the pool" is simple and correct, but not the way most native English-speakers speak. For some reason, we've settled on something that looks like the present progressive (but isn't): "I am going to the pool." We do tend to use the simple present form when talking about a habitual act (e.g. "I go to the pool on Thursdays."), but that's a whole different topic.
dr., I checked my Franklin Spanish/English dictionary device and it appears that the single little included word, "a," in the sentence makes a big difference and so the sentence's correct translation is as you say, "I am going to the pool."
I was aiming to totally disagree with you but found what you said to be entirely valid and that duo is off base here.
I don't. But I've been to quite a few homes that do. They're expensive but super if you have the money. This one house had a huge pool, jacuzzi with glass windows all around and it was snowing outside. Again, it's great if you have the money.
One way I remember "piscina" is it's something you don't want someone to do in a "pool" A little crude but that's how I remember the word.
Ir+a is used to express the future in the present tense, that's true. But the actual future tense has a different construction. I will go to the pool - iré a la piscina. For example.
One is used more for near future and the other for things further away in time, to be very general. If you think about it it's mostly the same in English. If someone asked you, What are you doing tomorrow? Would you reply I will go to the pool? Or I am going to the pool?
Well, you do say, "I go to the pool," and, "I go to the store," and, "I go to the gym," and you say, "I go to bed," and, "I go to work," and, "I go to swim," if you see what I'm getting at?
Saying, "I go to bed," isn't really saying that you're going to go to a place called, "bed," it's more of an idiomatic expression that means, "I go to sleep," in the same way that, "I go to work," means, "I go <to do> work," in the same way that, "I go to swim," doesn't mean that you're going to a place called, "swim."
I honestly don't know what it would be called, but it seems that if the object of, "go," is an actual place then, "to," is always followed by, "the." If the object of, "go," is (I don't really know what the right term is) an activity like, "going to bed," or, "going to work," or, "going to swim," then, "the," isn't used.
Does this rule apply in Spanish, also?
When I ran my mouse over the word "Voy" I realized it said (I) in light gray, and then it said "go". I went to the next word, and the next, then the last, and it said, "to the pool" so I wrote: "go to the pool" and it said I was wrong.
I know why I was wrong. I was supposed to put the gray (I), but it was light gray, which, I think, means, "don't put" or "in some cases", right? The I was gray, so I wrote, "go to the pool" and it gave me an ex and said, "I go to the pool".
If that was the case, though, why was there a gray I, not a black one, to show that you have to put it. The rest of the words were black, so I made out that I had to write them, but the word "Voy" had the gray I and I submitted my answer to see a red ex and the underlined word "I" with the sentence "go to the pool".
Did anyone else have the problem? It's a little confusing. I always thought gray in Duolingo meant, "in some cases" or, "don't put"; "too low a level to put" or things like that, so how are we supposed to know when to put the gray letters and words if we know nothing about Spanish and wanted to? I know Basics 1 is easier to understand, but B2 seems to begin with the gray letters.
Gray means the word is implied; that is, it's hidden information that you must take in to account when translating the full phrase.
In this case, the full sentence is "Yo voy a la piscina", but "yo" conspicuously missing. When you hover over the word "voy", it displays the word "go" in black to show that it can translate to the English verb "go". That "I" in grey tells you that it is specifically the first-person conjugation of the verb.
If you weren't supposed to put it there, then I doubt Duolingo would even include it as a choice (that or it would leave it standalone in black if it were a homonym).