"Lei mi ha dato una camicia."
Translation:She has given me a shirt.
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When using auxiliary avere with one of the following direct object pronouns:
- lo, l', la, li, le, ne - the past participle must agree with the implicit direct object
- mi, ti, ci, vi - the past participle may agree with the implicit direct object
Without a direct object pronoun - the past participle doesn't agree with the explicit direct object.
- lei mi ha dato una camicia = she has given me a shirt
- lei me l'ha data = she has given me it (feminine direct object)
- lei me l'ha dato = she has given me it (masculine direct object)
- lei me
No. When the auxiliary verb is «avere» (as it is here since it is «ha»), the past participle («dato») does not agree. The only time it would is if you use an object pronoun attached to the auxiliary verb: «L'ha dato.» means a masculine object (i.e. «il cane») and «L'ha data.» means a feminine object (i.e. «la matita»).
What do you mean by «Lei mi/ti ha data/o a lui»? If she is giving it to me or you («mi/ti»), how can it also be «a lui». Same question for the «Lei ci/vi ha date/i a lui». I had never seen the past participle agree with indirect object pronouns.
Also, does the past participle agree with plural direct object pronouns «le» and «li»? I could not recall whether they did or not. Thank you
"Dare" is not a very appropriate verb for my examples, but this is the English version: "She gave me/you/us/her/him/them to him" (a person is given to him). I intentionally replaced "una camicia" (a direct object) with "a lui" (an indirect object) for my examples to work. Instead I have moved the direct object before the verb as direct object pronoun, which could make the past participle agree with the direct object. This agreement is mandatory for lo/l'/la/li/le/ne and it's optional for mi/ti/ci/vi. I'll try with simpler examples:
- Lei mi/ti ha invitat
o/invitata = She invited me/you
- Lei ci/vi ha invitat
o/invitati/invitate = She invited us/you
- Lei lo ha invitato = She invited him
- Lei l'ha invitato/invitata = She invited him/her
- Lei la ha invitata = She invited her
- Lei li ha invitati = She invited them
- Lei le ha invitate = She invited them
Ah, I see. I was confused, with the whole giving people to other people. Haha.
Alas, but now with «dire», these become indirect objects. You tell something (direct) to someone (indirect). Therefore, your mandatory sentences should read: «Lei gli ha detto [qualcosa]. Lei le ha detto [qualcosa]. Lei ha detto loro.» and become null agreement.
Thank you, though. I get your point. :)
Agrh (inaudible). I always confuse direct and indirect objects, because in English there isn't much difference. For example "them" in "I give them" might be either direct or indirect object, but in Romance languages there is a difference. Anyway, I changed the verb in my last examples. I hope it doesn't take any indirect objects ;)
«Lei le ha dato una camicia.»
The links to the indirect and direct object pronouns are towards the end of this link: http://www.italianlanguageguide.com/grammar/pronouns/
Duolingo has said I was correct to say 'She has given me a shirt', and also 'She gave me a shirt'. These are used in slightly different situations in English.
Which is the most correct translation?
For example. I could ask: "Did she give you the shirt?" - response (emphatic) - "Yes, She has given me the shirt". less emphatic - 'Yeah, she gave me the shirt"
Does it matter? Is Lei mi ha dato una camicia a more emphasized form?