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  5. "عِنْد تامِر وَكَري بَيْت."

"عِنْد تامِر وَكَري بَيْت."

Translation:Tamer and Carrie have a house.

June 26, 2019



Do they have a house together or do they both have a house? Is there a way to see the difference?

  • 101

Interesting! I'd like to know too.


Yeah, i think so too


Is it always عند?


It can be one of three prepositions:

عَند – ʕand "at"
لَدى – ladaa "near"
لِـ – li- "to"


Great answer, just a small correction, the first preposition is pronounced "3ind"/"عِند"


There is also مَع ma3a 'with'. However, this has the meaning to have something with yourself ... which is a bit hard for a house.


Which ones are used the most often, and in what contexts(if you know)?


in spoken language عَند – ʕand "at" there is another option still also very common but only for objects you carry with you. with ma3 - مع


Hi, I don't understand when @linguafiquari said it can be one of the three prepositions. Isn't عند a verb here? How is it that a preposition such as 3ind is used here as a verb?


The concept of "having" something is expressed differently in Arabic than in English. As you continue studying, you will see that it is not conjugated as a verb would be.


The reason is because the real verb is the absent 'is' that we already learnt. This is, what you're really saying is at Tamer and Carrie IS a house.


Is it 3indi or 3inda? And why one of the two?


If you write it with full vocalisation you have عِنْدَ which transscribes to 3inda.


For me i wrote Carrie and Tamer have a house.

I just find it funny how i got wrong cuz of that lol.


What is said between the first two words


The right form isn't : تامر و كري عند بيت?


That changes the meaning:

تامر وكاري عند بيت


Tamer and Carrie are at a house.


In that case, عند would become عندهم to show that there are plural possessors, 'they have'


it becomes عندهما in the case you mentioned (they are two, not Arabic plural)


Why does it sound like "3inda" when I click on the whole sentence but "3ind" when I click on the individual word? Is there an error with the recording? Update: The recording has been fixed.


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Has and have are same


Shouldn't it be عندهما ؟


tough to explain this one, but it has to do with a grammatical form called 'identifying numbers/ordinals' in Arabic (tamyiiz 2al3adadd)

If عند is in the beginning it does not change form.

If عند comes later in the sentence (better form) then it conjugates with the owner.


عند تامر وكاري بيت

تامر وكاري عندهما بيت


I always thought if you start a sentence with عند that implies a question. such as: عند جودی بیت does Judy have a house, rather than Judy has a house .... please advise .


if a question has a yes/no answer ten it starts with هل

هل عند جودي بيت جديد؟ Does Judy have a new house?

What you say may be applicable in some local dialects however, if it is said with a questioning tone, but not in MSA.


up to now the word for house didn't appear with the small "o" on top of the "ii". Is it mandatory? What is its status?


It (the sukoon) is not mandatory, but its presence sure helps when you are learning. When the long vowel ي is preceded by a fatHa and followed by a sukoon, the sound formed is the diphthong "aye" which is why the Arabic word for house is pronounced "bayt" and not "beet." The sukoon also means that the syllable ends with the consonant above which it is placed. I have read it described as the absence of a vowel or as the "silent vowel." When placed after (above) a و preceded by a fatHa, the three together sound like "ow" instead of the "oo" sound of the long vowel و by itself.


Thank you. Would it be fair to say it is used more as a pedagogical tool than as a grammatical rule?


Yes. The sukoon and other symbols are used when children need the phonetic help they give. Once children can read by sight, the symbols are dropped. The symbols are also used in religious texts so readers are clear about which word is meant.


shouldn't it be عبدهم تامِر وَكَري بَيْت


I would like to have phonetics written in our alphabet.


"Tamer and Carrie have house" why this is marked as incorrect? It may be a typo but I think it should not mark as incorrect.


In English, unlike in Arabic, we must put the definite articles "a" or "an" before nouns. You left out the "a": "Tamer and Carrie have a house."


Wait. Elsewhere we learned Carrie has a wife named Judy, but now she has a house with Tamer? I must be missing something.

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