"عِنْد شادي بَيْت."

Translation: Shadi has a house.

[cuzi_hd]

3ind shaadii bayt

[Isis857894]

Thank you!!

[ph.thMjXq]

Yes my friend

[UzairSaeed1]

What? How? When? Where?

[Ibraforlife]

كيف؟ =what
كيف? also mean how.
كم? =when
أين؟ =where

[tsuj1g1r1]

"How many" = كم and "what" = ماذا. You're probably confused because we ask كَمِ السَّاعَةُ؟ "how many is the hour?" when we ask for the time in Arabic.

[tsuj1g1r1]

In Arabic, we don't have verb "to have." Instead, we say what literally translates to "At X is Y." to say that "X has Y." Since we don't use verb "to be" in the present tense, we just have "At X Y." So "At=3inda X=shaadii Y=bayt."

[nicodp98]

Why is it pronounced 3inda and not 3ind?

[tsuj1g1r1]

In Arabic, we don't pronounce short vowels at the end of words when those words are alone or when they come at the very end of an utterance. So, when you say "3inda" and nothing else, you pronounce it "3ind." But in the middle of an actual sentence, it's "3inda."

[KirilMladenov]

is there a different way to express possession in arabic?

[AniOhevYayin]

I'm just a beginner, but A.S. Tritton (Arabic. Teach Yourself Books, p. 35), indicates three ways, one of which is with the preposition عند. Another is through the preposition من. Another is the usual way in Semitic languages, viz. by appending a suffix to a noun. Here's a link to the latter: http://www.languageguide.org/arabic/grammar/possession.jsp Apparently there are other ways, such as the famous expression الإضَافَةُ. There's a ton of information on the internet on this subject but it's too advanced for me at this point.

[kuyaC]

Shouldn't it be bayt-un at the end?

[AnthPalm]

I think the -un sound only comes at the end of a subject. Bayt is not the subject here. Maybe it's because a its a name that is the subject, you don't add the -un?

[tsuj1g1r1]

It's actually a subject, believe it or not! The sentence literally says "At Shadi is a house." The house is the thing that is at Shadi, so it's the grammatical subject. If it were an object, it would have still ended in -an, but the reason it's not "baytun" is that at the end of an utterance, we don't pronounce word endings (at least the ones that are indicated only by diacritics and not letters).

You are right about "Shadi" not receiving grammatical endings, but that's because it ends in a long "ii" sound, and that sound has its own rules in this regard. But other names can receive endings.

[Asadallah6]

How about explaining what HAVE is in Arabic? Too hard?!

[gsazbon]

Why this word order and not with Shadi at the beginning? Other sentences start with the subject

[AniOhevYayin]

All the sentences that begin with عِنْد have the name after. Do a search of عِنْد

[Amal728978]

Why do they insist on having articles in the translation, I always miss the a or an

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