"لَيْسَ عِنْدها"
Translation:she does not have
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Let's say you ask someone if a lady has has a piano at home, if she doesn't have one, the answer could be: لَيسَ عِنْدها
Or if you ask if her brother is at her place, the answer can be the same thing to imply that he's not at her place.
Having said that, the English translation sounds like half a sentence, because in the first case, you'd say "she does not have one" or "she does not" and in the second case you'd say "he is not" or "he is not there".
Well, it's archaic. Has anyone said that since the eighteenth century? I think Duolingo has enough trouble getting the translations into correct modern English without having to take account of historical variants as well.
1016
Excuse me, one could say that (she has not), to be emphatic. In fact, it's quite stylish.
- 1016
Moreover, even if archaic, "she has not" means something, whereas "she does not have" is, as people have said, not a complete English sentence. Duolingo should correct that. Either "she does not have one" or "she has not". But thanks for replying so quickly.
You can certainly say "she has not", if it means "she has not done X". But what I was saying was that the case in question was where "she has not" means "she does not have" (as if I were to say "I have not a car"). That really is archaic, I think.