I hear a vowel on the end of some words when in a sentence but not when pronounced by itself? Is there some rule to this such as when a word ends in a consonant a vowel is "understood" when followed by another consonant. For example in this fraise I hear "Ayn(a) George ya Bob". Notice the "a" I hear after Ayn. Some help please
The full diacritics for the "where" English word in Arabic is 2aina أَيْنَ. It's how the word should be pronounced, ie. with "a".
In this "2aina" matter, the sound is not affected by whether the consonant at the next word follows the 2aina or not. "2aina" (means where) is always be "2aina" in every case.
Nb: I notice that some ending sounds in Duolingo are audio glitches/errors. But, in the "2aina" case, it's correct!
In English (and other Germanic languages) the difference between P and B is more in the aspiration than in voicedness. P is aspirated and unvoiced, B is voiced and unaspirated. If you say "panana" with an unaspirated /p/, a native English speaker will just hear "banana", because there's an unaspirated b-like sound in the beginning, just as they are expecting. In most languages, neither P or B is aspirated, and it's only the voicedness that counts. Now, if the Arabic pronounciation has a slightly aspirated /b/, then it might indeed sound like /p/ to an English speaker's ear. To my ear she clearly says /buub/, and I cannot imagine how it might sound like /puup/ or /poop/ to someone. But then again, my native tongue isn't English, Germanic or even Indo-European, so for me the P and B are defined very differently to how your mind defines them.
In Arabic faSiHa, there is no P sound. The ب is pronounced as it's, ie. with all its unique characteristics.
Nb: each Arabic letter has originally its unique characteristics related to its sound. However, some people (their tongues) change because of the influence from foreigners. Perhaps, they adopt P, V, and other letter sounds.
That would require the Arabic version to have a different phrasing as well.
I find the "Where is George, Bob" completely unambiguous. If this is a typical word order for asking Bob about George's whereabouts, then of course we should learn to understand it that way. Would be plenty fantastic if the Arabic phrase had a comma like the English one, but if Arabic typically doesn't use a comma in that place, then that's what we must learn to read.
The English phrase has the question mark and a comma. The English phrase is: "Where is George, Bob?". There's a comma after "George" and a question mark after "Bob".
Googling for it, it seems that in Arabic the use of comma is more voluntary than in English. However, the information I could find about this in English was very sparse. Clicking random links in Arabic Wikipedia, I can find articles that have very few commas at all.
If Arabic often ignores commas, meaning that a person reading Arabic is supposed to understand the phrase's meaning without commas as well, then it's correct to not show them in the Arabic sentence. If we need to learn to interpret "أَيْن جورْج يا بوب؟"correctly as "Where is George, Bob?", then this is a way we can learn it.