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Is there a general rule for this? Can you elaborate more? This difference in this example is very hard to tell
in arabic there is a difference between you singular male (انتَ) and you singular female (انتِ ). also singular you in other grammatical constructs. in this example:
do you (male) have is "هَل عِنْدَك" do you (female) have is "هَل عندِك"
"do you have" is sort of "is there at you", where "هَل" is a question word, and the "عِنْدَك" and "عندِك" is "at you (male)" and "at you (female)", respectively.
«عِنْدِك» It is the genitive/dative case of «عِنْدَك», usually followed after the preposition «مِنْ» (from/of).
And please, it is not male and female things.
Male: عِنْدَكَ Female: عِنْدَكِ The Dal is always in Fat'ha.
Male: مِنْ عِنْدِكَ Female: مِنْ عِنْدِكِ (from you/from your place)
It is masculine when the possessive kaf is in Fat'ha and feminine when the possessive kaf is in Kasra. The Dal just determines the grammatical case.
I am disappointed it even exists in “Tips and Notes”; contributors should fix this because it is outside the pure Arabic, the MSA.
Objects have genders in Arabic just like in Spanish. If you see a ة at the end of a word, it is feminine and any adjectives associated with that noun must be made feminine as well. Example....car (سيارة) is feminine in Arabic (notice the ة). If we wanted to say "a pretty car" we cannot use جميل, we must use the feminine جميلة and say "سيارة جميلة".
But for this specific exercise....Seth is a male, so that's why we use the masculine form "ak" instead of "ik"
