"عِنْد تامِر بَيْت."

Translation:Tamer has a house.

July 10, 2019

20 Comments
This discussion is locked.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/IgorBergin

عِنْد = near, at تامِر بَيْت = Tamer house

Literally: near/at Tamer house...?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AmineHadji1

عِنْد = at the place of ...

Literally, عِنْد تامِر means "at Tamer's place". Since Arabic doesn't have a natural verb to have, we express possession differently, for instance with the use of ( عِنْد + Possessor X + ...) ≃ (Possessor X has + ...).


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/KatieC993112

How interesting. Russian is just the same. Not only does the Russian equivalent of عند denote possession, but also "at the house of", like "chez" in French, though chez does not denote possession. The Russian equivalent - U, or Y in Cyrillic - does not mean "around", ToghrulNH.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Julkon5

It reminds me Russian, where it's possible to say " U Tamira dom" meaning Tamir has a house. May be it is not correct comparison, but helps to understand and remember.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ToghrulNH

Or, 'U menya yest dva brata.'

Which directly translates as "Around me are two brothers", if i'm not mistaken.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/KatieC993112

Or even у меня два брата ("U menya dva brata"). The yest' is not necessary unless you're being emphatic.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/KatieC993112

I think the comparison is perfect, Julkon5. I found it very curious that Arabic and Russian should be so similar here, and in other aspects.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/hindisikhn

Great Scot, so Russian expresses alienable and inalienable have with the same form? One has brothers as one has cars? And is Arabic like this too? (What is ladiiy ?)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/KatieC993112

But, as you've illustrated (one has brothers as one has cars) English doesn't distinguish these either.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/hindisikhn

Hello, I am not permitted to answer your other comment for some reason, to which my answer is that inalienable possession in Hindi is expressed as something like 'my son/hand/ancestral home/brain is', while alienable possession is expressed through locative constructions such as 'with me a fine new shroud is.' Arabic can express possession with personal suffixes. How, I was wondering, do the types of possession accrue to the locative constructions vs. personal suffixation?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Dennisfromsweden

The words are read "has tamer house" it sounds like a question. Am I just going to guess if it's a question or a statement that he has a house?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Lasofi

I think it would have the interrogative هل - "هل عند تامر بيت؟"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/KatieC993112

It's not a question. عند is not a verb (this is an example of a nominal sentence, as opposed to a verbal sentence). Also, you can't assume that inverting the word order turns a statement into a question; this is not the case in all languages. Thirdly there's no question word in the sentence. This is definitely a statement.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Michael75574

Guys how do you distinguish between the letter making the "n" sound and the one making the "d" sound?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/divdev2000

n letter is connected to the next letter, dh letter is not, d letter has no dot on top


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Zententia

I'm also hearing an 'n' rather than a 'd' there.

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