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- "Seth has a new skirt."
"Seth has a new skirt."
Translation:عِنْد سيث تَنّورة جَديدة.
21 Comments
299
Quikkmaffs, FerencziDn2:
It is "3ind" where the "3ain" ع letter is with kasra, ie. "3i" عِ . Furthermore, if we follow Standard, عِنْد is pronounced as "3inda" عِنْدَ -- and is always as "3inda" at any case.
(Edit: I got a downvote without any reason for my valid answer -- it really destroy my learning spirit. I think I should leave this forum soon. I feel so useless here).
Ok, I'll try to explain this without getting verbose. عند is a preposition (at/with, although we translate it as "have"), and the various letters after it are the pronoun suffixes. I have عندي You have عندك He has عنده In this case, we are using the noun (Seth) instead of a pronoun suffix, so it's just عند
102
Given the other exercises, one can assume that Seth is male and has a skirt.
There's nothing wrong with a man having a skirt. Even if you insist that skirts are only for women (not exactly a great view to be holding IMO), perhaps he has just bought the skirt as a present for his wife, and is currently in possession of it. In this case, this is a perfectly reasonable sentence to say.
That's the point: they make confusing sentences to check if of you understand the grammar rules and apply them correctly depending on the context and not just by habit. In this case you would think tannoorah would get the -tik suffix, but it's a trap, you have to think twice about the right thing before speaking.
102
There's nothing wrong with a man having a skirt. Even if you insist that skirts are only for women (not exactly a great view to be holding IMO), perhaps he has just bought the skirt as a present for his wife, and is therefore currently in possession of it. In this case, this is a perfectly reasonable sentence to say.