Duolingo is the most popular way to learn languages in the world. Best of all, it's 100% free!

"Europeans like to drink wine."

Translation:A los europeos les gusta beber vino.

5 years ago

65 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/hannah.mcmeans

Why 'a los europeos'? Why won't 'los europeos' without the 'a' work?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/gaudetmi
gaudetmi
  • 16
  • 15
  • 15
  • 8
  • 2
  • 2
  • 2

@MattMoran's explanation below is the only thing that made sense to me. Think of this as "To the europeans, it is pleasing to drink wine." It's awkward in (modern) conversational english, but it works for me.

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MatthewSwa2

yeah it would

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PaulKazim

Gustar always uses A

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/peterkypark

It's called the "personal a" which should be added before personal pronouns.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/KhalidSabi
KhalidSabi
  • 22
  • 16
  • 11
  • 7
  • 6
  • 4
  • 2

It's absolutely not the personal A you are referring to in this sentence. The a is simply there because los europeos is the indirect object of the verb gustar in this case.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/marchgo

Thank you!

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SGuthrie0

See my references above.

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AmyAdams476624

I understand the concept of the "personal a", but I'm still confused... We don't always have to say "A mí me gusta"; we can just say "me gusta" and everyone understands. So why do we HAVE to say "a los europeos"? Is this just how it is and I should move on, or is duolingo being extra picky?

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jzsuzsi
jzsuzsi
  • 25
  • 25
  • 19
  • 19
  • 15
  • 13
  • 10
  • 9
  • 8
  • 8
  • 8
  • 7
  • 7
  • 6
  • 6
  • 6
  • 5
  • 4
  • 4
  • 3
  • 2
  • 47

When you say "me gusta" we know that means "I like", because "me" cannot refer to anyone else. So A mí me gusta is redundant.

But when wrtiting "les gusta beber vino", it means they like drinking wine. Who are they? The Europeans. It needs to be specified here, so A los europeos les gusta beber vino.

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/WimXL
WimXL
  • 25
  • 25
  • 25
  • 20
  • 16
  • 1026

Gusta or gustan ? Why gusta and gustan, i would say gustan but apparently this is niot correct. To me the explanations here make it mire puzzling.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mattmoran

The only way it makes sense is to realize that "gustar" does not actually mean "to like." It means "to be pleasing to". (Although duolingo won't let you translate it "correctly".) A literal translation of "A los europeos les gusta beber vino." is "Drinking wine is pleasing to the europeans." There is no way in spanish to write "the europeans like drinking wine" You must turn it around like this. Gusta is correct in this case because the subject "beber vino" - "to drink wine" is singular. You use gustan when the subject is plural. For example "Me gustan mis amigos." - "My friends are pleasing to me" or "I like my friends."

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/WimXL
WimXL
  • 25
  • 25
  • 25
  • 20
  • 16
  • 1026

Thank you for you clear explanation

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/vientoazul

Ok I have another question, I used "los europeos gustan de beber vino" and it was incorrect... why?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/galesl

Four problems:

  • You're missing "a" before "los europeos".

  • You're missing "les" before the verb. In Spanish it's common to have an indirect object represented twice, with both the noun ("a los europeos") and the pronoun ("les").

  • the action "beber vino" is singular, so the verb should be singular "gusta"

  • there should be no "de" before "beber vino".

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PeterJacks144506

For I like we can say me gusta so why is it a los europeos?

10 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/flores_jimena03

That's correct

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/duolearner12345

Because when you use gustar, you have to include an object pronoun. In this case, les.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HaydenWrig9

If I used a, not les, would it still count?

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/vega.marle
vega.marle
  • 14
  • 12
  • 12
  • 7
  • 2
  • 2
  • 2

En español es correcto, sólo que DL no toma en cuenta respuestas similares.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/marialunamerced

Ahhh... got it! thanks

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/elinatsax

It is singular because of the infinitive . Gusta(singular)+infinitive always. Hope it helped

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Talca
Talca
  • 25
  • 16

Never heard of this rule. How would you translate The Europeans like to eat apples? Does the plural direct object change things? Gracias.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/galesl
  • "A los europeos les gusta comer las manzanas." Europeans like to eat apples. (Literally "eating apples pleases Europeans".)

As for verbs being used as nouns, yes they're treated as singular, as in English. I believe they're also treated as masculine.

  • "Comer manzanas es divertido." Eating apples is fun.
4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/marchgo

Thanks!

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/altajr
altajr
  • 17
  • 13

gustar is referring to the wine --- not the Europeans. So, it's gusta -- singular.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/freddy-a

It is refering to the drinking of the wine. Therefor, the eating of the appleS also uses gusta, as someone mentioned earlier.

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rbc469003

Les gusta beber vino a los europeos. Can I put 'a los europeos' at the end?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/vega.marle
vega.marle
  • 14
  • 12
  • 12
  • 7
  • 2
  • 2
  • 2

Yes you can do it!

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RonnalFord

Was counted incorrect. I reported it.

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SGuthrie0

It goes at the beginning. See references above.

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/galesl

I was marked wrong for writing ... "el vino"... I thought it was OK to include the definite article when talking about a noun in general. If "los europeos" is OK, why not "el vino"?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/flores_jimena03

Because it is not talking about a certain wine

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/heterotroph

Why does it have to be "los" europeos? Could the definite article be omitted?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Talca
Talca
  • 25
  • 16

Gustar is a land mine. Not only is an article necessary, but the A preposition is also required. DL is correct here.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/duolearner12345

I think you include the articles when you talk about something in general. Like Europeans in generals or cars in general. Not 100% sure

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JustinRG
JustinRGPlus
  • 19
  • 17
  • 17
  • 7
  • 6
  • 124

Is there anything wrong with "Les gusta beber vino a los europeos"?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Damian91576

Tomar is often used for consuming food and beverages. Why is it unacceptable here?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/irene121212

I thought TOMAR was to take a drink too....but was marked wrong

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mattmoran

This sort of stereotyping can quickly go downhill.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PiaAlicia-

Esa prinche 'a' siempre me confunda

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MaraLujnPe
MaraLujnPe
  • 20
  • 15
  • 10
  • 7
  • 3
  • 3

Se puede traducir como "Los europeos gustan de beber vino"?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Jaret675360

Why the a los? can someone just break down this sentence, the les is killing me

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Damian91576

The literal translation of gustar is "to please." When we like something, it pleases us, and that is the way it is expressed in romance languages. A more literal translation would be "Drinking wine is pleasing to the Europeans." "Les" is the indirect object pronoun meaning "to them," "los Europeos" is "the Europeans," and "a" is necessary in Spanish for many interactions with people.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/zsxily
zsxily
  • 19
  • 337

why 'the europeans' is the indirect object instead of a direct object? If this is the case, what is the direct object in this sentense? Thanks.

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/V.T.Holmes

Este es verdadero

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/GedFarnan

That sentence is a real mouthful!

6 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jadaguineptree

Why does "Les gusta beber vino a los europeos" not work? Does a los europeos have to precede the rest and why?

6 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/zsxily
zsxily
  • 19
  • 337

why 'the europeans' is the indirect object instead of a direct object? If this is the case, what is the direct object in this sentense? Thanks.

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Oriana_Brown

Why isnt it plural?? Les gustaN not les gusta??

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/V.T.Holmes

because verb gustar only has 2 forms - gusta and gustan. It doesn't rely on the subject of the sentence but rather the object. Gusta is used when the object of the sentence is in singular (like vino in this sentence) and gustan is used when the object is in plurar (example: A los europeos les gustan comer quesos.)

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Steve842760

A good reference for this sentence structure. https://studyspanish.com/grammar/lessons/gustar

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/alex713746

I do not understand why there is no 'a' with me gusta but it is needed here. Is it needed always except for first person singular

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Charlotte1947

I think the literal translation would sound like, "To the Europeans, they like to drink it, the wine." The problem is when you write the Spanish, it seems that everywhere else, the verb has to agree with the number.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/skepticalways

About the last five or six people need to start at the BEGINNING of the forum, to get the answers to your questions.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mikidadial

A simple 'Europeos gusta beber vino' wrong, why?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/gz7g6b

I'm lost

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jack.george

I find all the comments to create more confusion at times. A clear, concise answer would be much more helpful.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/raregold2001

shouldn't it be les gustan beber vino

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Iago
Iago
  • 15
  • 7
  • 5
  • 4
  • 3
  • 2

Nope, the given answer is correct.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rocko2012
rocko2012
  • 25
  • 14
  • 3
  • 2008

I've not given it much thought when you use "gustar" to show you like an action. If it was just a singular noun "vino" being liked then it clearly would be "les gusta vino". I'm guessing an action is always singular and requires singular conjugation.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tcmvl
tcmvl
  • 13
  • 3
  • 3

you use gusta with an infinitive

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/duolearner12345

To expand on this, I believe "gusta" is the "it/him/her" form and since in this sentence beber is an object (kind of), you would use gusta. What pleases the europeans: drinking

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/VarunKodal

To expand on this, I believe "gusta" is the "it/him/her" form and since in this sentence beber is an object (kind of), you would use gusta. What pleases the europeans: drinking

7 months ago