"Europeans like to drink wine."

Translation:A los europeos les gusta beber vino.

April 18, 2013

44 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/hannah.mcmeans

Why 'a los europeos'? Why won't 'los europeos' without the 'a' work?

January 24, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/gaudetmi

@MattMoran's explanation below is the only thing that made sense to me. Think of this as "To the europeans, it is pleasing to drink wine." It's awkward in (modern) conversational english, but it works for me.

February 8, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/WimXL
  • 1350

Gusta or gustan ? Why gusta and gustan, i would say gustan but apparently this is niot correct. To me the explanations here make it mire puzzling.

June 4, 2013

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/mattmoran

The only way it makes sense is to realize that "gustar" does not actually mean "to like." It means "to be pleasing to". (Although duolingo won't let you translate it "correctly".) A literal translation of "A los europeos les gusta beber vino." is "Drinking wine is pleasing to the europeans." There is no way in spanish to write "the europeans like drinking wine" You must turn it around like this. Gusta is correct in this case because the subject "beber vino" - "to drink wine" is singular. You use gustan when the subject is plural. For example "Me gustan mis amigos." - "My friends are pleasing to me" or "I like my friends."

June 4, 2013

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/WimXL
  • 1350

Thank you for you clear explanation

June 5, 2013

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/vientoazul

Ok I have another question, I used "los europeos gustan de beber vino" and it was incorrect... why?

January 8, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/galesl

Four problems:

  • You're missing "a" before "los europeos".

  • You're missing "les" before the verb. In Spanish it's common to have an indirect object represented twice, with both the noun ("a los europeos") and the pronoun ("les").

  • the action "beber vino" is singular, so the verb should be singular "gusta"

  • there should be no "de" before "beber vino".

July 28, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/PeterJacks144506

For I like we can say me gusta so why is it a los europeos?

November 13, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/flores_jimena03

That's correct

November 7, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/duolearner12345

Because when you use gustar, you have to include an object pronoun. In this case, les.

January 8, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/HaydenWrig9

If I used a, not les, would it still count?

January 8, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/vega.marle

En español es correcto, sólo que DL no toma en cuenta respuestas similares.

August 4, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/marialunamerced

Ahhh... got it! thanks

March 17, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/elinatsax

It is singular because of the infinitive . Gusta(singular)+infinitive always. Hope it helped

March 2, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Talca

Never heard of this rule. How would you translate The Europeans like to eat apples? Does the plural direct object change things? Gracias.

August 4, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/galesl
  • "A los europeos les gusta comer las manzanas." Europeans like to eat apples. (Literally "eating apples pleases Europeans".)

As for verbs being used as nouns, yes they're treated as singular, as in English. I believe they're also treated as masculine.

  • "Comer manzanas es divertido." Eating apples is fun.
August 4, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/marchgo

Thanks!

February 9, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/altajr

gustar is referring to the wine --- not the Europeans. So, it's gusta -- singular.

July 28, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/freddy-a

It is refering to the drinking of the wine. Therefor, the eating of the appleS also uses gusta, as someone mentioned earlier.

December 30, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/rbc469003

Les gusta beber vino a los europeos. Can I put 'a los europeos' at the end?

July 12, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/vega.marle

Yes you can do it!

August 4, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/RonnalFord

Was counted incorrect. I reported it.

February 10, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/galesl

I was marked wrong for writing ... "el vino"... I thought it was OK to include the definite article when talking about a noun in general. If "los europeos" is OK, why not "el vino"?

June 21, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/flores_jimena03

Because it is not talking about a certain wine

November 7, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/heterotroph

Why does it have to be "los" europeos? Could the definite article be omitted?

July 14, 2013

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Talca

Gustar is a land mine. Not only is an article necessary, but the A preposition is also required. DL is correct here.

August 4, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/duolearner12345

I think you include the articles when you talk about something in general. Like Europeans in generals or cars in general. Not 100% sure

July 16, 2013

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/JustinG01

Is there anything wrong with "Les gusta beber vino a los europeos"?

March 4, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Damian91576

Tomar is often used for consuming food and beverages. Why is it unacceptable here?

April 21, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/irene121212

I thought TOMAR was to take a drink too....but was marked wrong

May 29, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/mattmoran

This sort of stereotyping can quickly go downhill.

April 25, 2013

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/PiaAlicia-

Esa prinche 'a' siempre me confunda

January 6, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/MaraLujnPe

Se puede traducir como "Los europeos gustan de beber vino"?

February 8, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Jaret675360

Why the a los? can someone just break down this sentence, the les is killing me

April 7, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Damian91576

The literal translation of gustar is "to please." When we like something, it pleases us, and that is the way it is expressed in romance languages. A more literal translation would be "Drinking wine is pleasing to the Europeans." "Les" is the indirect object pronoun meaning "to them," "los Europeos" is "the Europeans," and "a" is necessary in Spanish for many interactions with people.

April 21, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/zsxily

why 'the europeans' is the indirect object instead of a direct object? If this is the case, what is the direct object in this sentense? Thanks.

April 1, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/V.T.Holmes

Este es verdadero

May 19, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/GedFarnan

That sentence is a real mouthful!

March 4, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/jadaguineptree

Why does "Les gusta beber vino a los europeos" not work? Does a los europeos have to precede the rest and why?

March 11, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/zsxily

why 'the europeans' is the indirect object instead of a direct object? If this is the case, what is the direct object in this sentense? Thanks.

April 1, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Oriana_Brown

Why isnt it plural?? Les gustaN not les gusta??

April 3, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/V.T.Holmes

because verb gustar only has 2 forms - gusta and gustan. It doesn't rely on the subject of the sentence but rather the object. Gusta is used when the object of the sentence is in singular (like vino in this sentence) and gustan is used when the object is in plurar (example: A los europeos les gustan comer quesos.)

April 3, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Steve842760

A good reference for this sentence structure. https://studyspanish.com/grammar/lessons/gustar

May 11, 2018
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