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https://www.duolingo.com/profile/bananajonesrulez

'al' versus regular 'el'

In the sentence "the woman does not hear the boy," why is it translated as "la mujer no ve 'al' niño." I am unsure why it must be 'al' opposed to 'el'. What makes it necessary for the imaginary english 'to' to be there? It's slightly difficult for me to understand

July 23, 2012

2 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Dusse

It's the personal A. This link has been thrown around quite a bit here and it's a good explanation:

http://spanish.about.com/cs/grammar/a/personal_a.htm

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