"She blames us."
Translation:Ella nos culpa.
Yes, but that's a different construction. It is probably more common your way. Duolingo's sentence uses the verb 'culpar'. Yours uses the noun 'culpa' as the direct object, which is why you need a verb (echar).
Why does 'nos' go before 'culpa' in the sentence 'Ella nos culpa' rather than 'Ella culpa nos'?
It has to come before, this is the rule. The exceptions are in phrases with two verbs in which case it can go before or after;
"Ella no puede culparnos" and "Ella no nos puede culpar" both mean "She can't blame us."
The other exception is in an imperative, in which case it must come after; "¡Culpanos!" means "Blame us!"
Note that if it is put at the end, there is no space between the verb and clitic.
Near as I can see, the literal translation of "Ella culpa a nosotros" would be "she blames to we"--while the meaning is still there, the grammar in english would be very wrong. I think, in Spanish, that the "clitic" nouns such as "nos" work to show that you're dealing with objects, not subjects.
"Ella nos da la culpa" should be accepted. Dar la culpa (a alguien) quiere decir "to blame (someone)" en español.
You are correct, but you're using the noun 'culpa' instead of the verb 'culpar'. I think I hear the noun more often than the verb, but I don't usually think about it.
Anyway, your sentence is a valid way to say this, but you're using a different verb and object. I can see why it would say you're wrong though. It doesn't usually accept changing verbs to nouns. The software isn't able to understand that.
Because to accuse is not the same thing as to blame. You can blame someone privately, for example, or you can accuse them falsely.
Direct object pronouns (such as "nos") come before the verb in Spanish. "Ella nos culpa."
I thought that when the direct object is a person, one uses "a" as in Ella a nos culpa
I'm confused as to when one would us "a" as in ella nos culpa a nosotros Can anyone shine some light on this?
I thought these were indirect object pronouns. Here nos is a direct object. In Spanish is it an indirect object somehow?
So culpar is a reflexive verb? Why is nos in front? wouldn't that be "she we blame"?
No, it's not reflexive. That would be "se culpa," since the sentence subject is "she."
"Nos" is in front because object pronouns in Spanish always come before their verb.
It means "us." So, it's like "nosotros," except for sentence objects rather than subjects (same as the distinction in English between "us" and "we.")
I'm missing something. Where is this subject taught? I do not want to teach grammar. I just wanted to communicate. Is there a site that has instructions?
About as far off as "she blames we" would be. Use the objective case pronoun "nos." (Nosotros vs nos is about the same as we vs us.) And these objective case pronouns typically precede the verb in Spanish.