Stephanus and Marcus are being addressed in this case; you are saying "salvete" to Stephanus and Marcus. Most masculine words ending in -us (2nd declension) will get the ending -e in this situation. Names ending in -a don't change. (Salve, Livia!)
This is the vocative case, used for people being addressed.
So are you saying that it is considered incorrect to carry the vocative form over into English?
(I believe a similar thing happens in Russian - that is, names are declined for case. Although a bit of googling suggests that the vocative case has died out in modern Russian. Even so, would native speakers of Russian only use the nominative form of names when speaking another (case-less) language?)
Imagine that this is a text you need to translate into English:
Marcus vir est. Marcum amo. Marco rosam do. Salve, Marce!
(Marcus is a man. I love Marcus. I give Marcus a rose. Hi, Marcus!)
Marcus, Marcum, Marco, and Marce are all referring to the same person (Marcus). Using the different forms in English would only cause confusion, so no, we don't carry the vocative form over into English.
Since there are five categories of vocative in Arabic, I just stick with one and try not to bother with the rest :p. But since we have that vocative particle "yā" plus the fact that Arabic allows us to not pronounce case-endings, I pretty much ignore all of them(except maybe when the vocative is indefinite).
My knowledge of Russian is rudimentary. But I'm a native speaker of another Slavic language that has 7 cases. Trying to understand your question, but it's challenging. When speaking in another case-less language names are not being used in any other form except for nominative. It would not make a lot of sense to transfer vocative, especially to transfer only that one case.
In bulgarian language there is vocative case, while there is no one in Russian. For example in bulgarian. Nominative - господин (sir), vocative - господинЕ. In russian it is always "господин".
But some archaic forms remain, usually when one addresses to God - not "Бог мой", but "Боже мой". The same "our father" ("Отче наш", not "Отец наш") and Jesus Christ ("Иисусе Христе").
Actually we use the vocative case in Russian, but not the one you mean.
There was a vocative case in Old Russian - 'старче' (vocative of 'старик' - old man, you could read it in Pushkin), 'Боже' (vocative of 'Бог' - God) and so on. Everyone understands it, but nobody uses indeed.
And there's a modern vocative case in modern Russian - 'Саш' (vocative of name 'Саша' - Sasha), 'Юль' (vocative of name 'Юля' - Yulia) etc. It's used mostly for names and it's very much informal (only for your good friends).
And we use nominative for names but it's more formal.
Actually there are two forms of every name - formal form and informal short form. For example: Dima, Sasha, Masha - short for Dmitriy, Alexander, Maria. There's vocative for informal short form, but the formal form is only used with nominative.
I feel that this was not MarkTerpstra1's question (or probably I didn't understood the answer) but I have the same one, does the name have to change in the answer? If I write or say my name in Latin do I have to change it?. I think no cuz my/any name should be writed and pronounced as it is. Am I right?
I'm not sure what you mean by "written and pronounced as it is".
Latin declines nouns. Names are nouns. Names get declined.
English does not decline nouns. Names stay the same.
Marcus iter facit. [nominative]
Marcus makes a journey.
Sellam ad Marco do. [dative]
I give the chair to Marcus.
Psittacus Marcum videt. [accusative]
The parrot sees Marcus.
Salve, Marce! [vocative]
Here is a plain-English overview of what the cases are and how they work:
Latin cases, in English
Adjectives must agree in gender, number, and case with the nouns they modify, but they have their own declensions. Sometimes you get lucky and the adjective just happens to follow the same declension as the noun, but that is not a guarantee.
Some are saying that English doesn't have declension.
Nouns are declined according to number. Pronouns are declined according to case and nouns have possessive forms (unlike e.g. French). I think you would have to look at non-Indo-European languages to find one without any declension.
English used to have a full declension system, but we lost it a while ago and only a vestige of it remains in the pronouns*: nominative, possessive (not genitive), and oblique (lack of differentiation between different types of object). I don't think having a different form for singular and plural per se is considered a declension.
*And in the way plurals are formed.
"Puerum" is accusative.
"Pueros" is accusative.
Both are forms of the 2nd declension masculine noun "puer". The fact that one is singular and the other is plural doesn't change that.
If you mean that the singular and the plural have different forms, of course they do. But that doesn't change their role in the sentence. Inflecting to show plural doesn't automatically make it an entirely separate declension. Please re-read the entirety of what I wrote.
That's a bug. The vocative case is needed here, so it must be "Salvete, Stephane et Marce." Please flag it and report it, and/or submit a bug report with screen shot to:
The infinitive is "salvere", which means "to be well". The conjugation here is the present imperative "be well".
Addressing one person (tu) it's "salve" and addressing multiple people (vos) it's "salvete".