"Puer in urbe dormit."

Translation:The boy sleeps in the city.

August 27, 2019

16 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ARCANA-MVSA

Note: This course shows the word for 'city' as 'urbe.' It is not 'urbe' in the nominative; this is the ablative form of the word 'urbs, urbis,' 3rd decl. f, which is the word for 'city' - urbs in the nominative. The preposition 'in' in this case takes the ablative; if the boy was going into the city, this preposition would take the accusative - 'urbem.' Puer in urbem it. The boy goes into the city. Puer in urbe dormit. The boy sleeps in the city.

Volgav vitsenanieff nivya kevach varatsach.

August 27, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/MatthewDaher

Is "the boy in the city sleeps" incorrect?

August 27, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/CorExAuro

I would say so, as it is incorrect word order in English.

August 27, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/MatthewDaher

If the emphasis is on the boy's location, I think it's correct English, eg. "The boy in the city sleeps, but the boy on the farm does not."

August 27, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Quidam_Cragius

That is not a matter of emphasis. What you are suggesting would require a relative clause in Latin: "puer qui in urbe est dormit" ("the boy that's in the city is sleeping") or an adjective: "puer urbanus dormit" ("the city boy is sleeping").

August 29, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
  • 2038

It's not wrong, it's just a differently structured sentence with a different meaning.

"The boy in the city sleeps" = The boy who is in the city is sleeping.

"They boy sleeps in the city" = Where does the boy sleep? In the city.

August 29, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Quidam_Cragius

And the Latin "puer in urbe dormit" can only mean the latter.

August 29, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Wowpow2300

For this latin sentence, considering its circumstance, i would say so.

August 28, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Daoken

Why dormit at the end of the sentence?

August 27, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ARCANA-MVSA

Because Latin is predominantly SOV word order. It's a heavily inflected language, so word order is relatively loose, but it's still predominantly SOV, which places the verb at the end. :)

Volgav vitsenanieff nivya kevach varatsach.

August 27, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Girv98

Latin has free word order, but the preferred order is SOV - meaning the verb comes at the end.

August 29, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Wowpow2300

I believe it's just the structure of latin, tbh.

August 28, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/George297409

This question is sounding very garbled

September 6, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
  • 2038

You can flag it in-lesson and report a problem with the audio.

September 6, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/JakeThomas532543

This audio file is trash. It's almost impossible to hear, either because the quality of the file is so terrible or because the person doing the recording is able to (and does) roll/trill every consonant in the sentence.

September 2, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AlanS181824

In Latin the R is generally trilled/rolled and since most (native) English speakers cannot do this it is important to note it when recording a sentence for the purpose of learning.

September 8, 2019
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