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- Topic: Latin >
- "Stephanus bene se habet."
90 Comments
"Se" acts as a reflexive pronoun here, right? As in the translation is literally something along the lines of "Stephanus has himself well"?
Considering its descendents (spanish, french, etc) have reflexive case, so does latin
237
But I don't seem to remember there was reflexive in other persons, like ego me habeo? (Or maybe I missed it; I am new.)
Why is "Stephanus se bene habet" wrong? I can't work out what the word order rules are.
According to various sources, it is pronounced in Classical Latin.
3rd person singular vs 2nd person singular
| pronoun | verb suffix |
|---|---|
| ego | -o |
| tu | -s |
| id | -t |
| nos | -mus |
| vos | -tis |
| ea | -nt |
What is the difference between "Stephanus bene se habet." and "Stephanus se bene habet." I kind of confuse.
- 1855
there is a comment regarding this in the lesson notes - all of the names of people should stay the same and NOT be translated to their modern-day/English counterparts
No, because 'Stephen' may be a different person.
I have many friends with variants of this name - Stephanus / Stephen / Steven / Stefan....they are all different people who do not change the spelling of their names when they travel to countries with another language.
There was a post by the course creators. Names will not be translated. They will not accept that.
- 197
Darn autocorrect - i always get Stephens for Stephanus. Anyway, if names are not supposed to be translated why does Marce become Marcus (and vice versa) in the lessons?
Stephanus and Marcus are the nominative. English does not decline nouns, so English would only use that form.
- 1167
To be clear, in Latin the name is also Marcus. So it is in fact not translated. Instead, Marce is just a different form of Marcus. (A bit like "flies" is a different form of "fly".)
Se bene habet or bene se habet is all the same. I am unable to understand why the app give it as a mistake.
Because the course contributors have to manually add all the different possible answers to each lesson individually. There are bound to be oversights. Please flag it in-lesson and report "My answer should be accepted."
The "se" sound file is mute (second time finding a defective audio file. I really hope it isn't my phone).
It might be your phone.
These sentences are read as whole sentences by human beings. This isn't a joining together of separately recorded words.
Oh, the phrase audio itself is alright, the problem is when I touched only "se" separately. No sound came out of it. I reported it on the app, is it enough?
Probably. It might not be an error so much as an oversight or something like that. Even so, it would remind the course contributors that they're missing an entry.
If "Stephanus feels fine" is marked wrong, go ahead and flag it and report "My answer should be accepted."
Why " Livia se bene habet" and " Stephanus bene se habet" ? does the reflective changes for he and she ?
No, gender has no bearing on the syntax. It can go either way regardless of who we're talking about.
Marcus bene se habet.
Marcus se bene habet.
Livia bene se habet.
Livis se bene habet.
Could someone please tell me the correct sentence structure (i.e. order of noun, verb, etc.)
Latin is generally subject-object-verb.
Adjectives generally go after the noun.
Adverbs and object pronouns generally go before the verb.
What is the exact meaning of bene, and on that note what would a more literal and word for word translation of this sentence look like?
"Bene" is the adverb "well", which can never be used as an adjective the way "well" can in English when discussing health and wellness.
"Stephanus bene se habet" is literally "Stephanus holds himself well".
Granted they take some getting used to, but unlike most of the other courses, they aren't text to speech. Rather they are real people recorded in sometimes difficult recording conditions.
Bahahaha - Everyone has an accent! Even native speakers have an accent. And it's a bit hard to get a native ancient Latin speaker these days. :)
Are you really speak this slow in real life? Or Duo helps us to hear word by word very clear?
Because Latin did not say it the same way we do. They had two phrases that we render in English as "How is he feeling?" or "How is he doing?"
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Quomodo se habet? Literally "How does he hold himself?"
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Quid agit? Literally "What is he doing?"
Why should we add "se" in front of "habeo" ?
What's the difference between "habeo" and "se habeo"?
Habere is "to hold/keep/have". The reflexive is needed here because "bene me habeo" literally means "I hold myself well".
You can say in this course, Livia se bene habet - Livia feels well and, Stephanus bene se habet - Stephanus feels well Is the word order dictated by gender or are you generally allowed at free will to order the sentence anyway that you want so like e.g. habet se bene stephanus?
Gender has nothing to do with it. And word order in Latin is not completely free, it's just relatively flexible. It's generally Subject Object Verb, with adjectives coming after the noun and adverbs coming before the verb.
You can say "X bene se habet" or "X se bene habet". What you said is just jumbled up.
I translated it as "Stephanus is doing well", got it right, and I see here that it was supposed to be "Stephanus feels well" because apparently "habet" is feel. Why is that?
"Habet" does not mean "feels". That would be "sentit".
"Stephanus bene se habet" literally means "Stephanus has/holds himself well." Idiomatically it is equivalent to "Stephanus feels well" and "Stephanus is doing well" because those two phrases are more or less interchangeable in English.
This statement is wrong. Habeo, habare, habavit does not not mean "feel". It means "has/have". You're saying that "Stephanus has a good him." There is a latin word for "feel", so if you want to use that word, use the correct word. You can also say the same thing in a simpler way. "Stephanus est bene." You have made this statement needlessly complicated and wrong. Anyone that tries to use this statement is only going get confused glances and be corrected.
No. This is the reflexive. Stephanus holds himself well. This has been explained on this page many times. That's also why it's the adverb "bene". And just because Latin had a word that means "to feel" doesn't mean they used it the way we do in English to refer to mental state or health.
That doesn't mean that Stephanus "feels" well. Holding yourself well reads similar to "He thinks well of himself" or something else along those lines. That doesn't say anything about how he physically or mentally "feels" other than saying that Stephanus is somewhat confident in himself.
You're imposing English onto Latin. Don't do that. It doesn't work that way.
No.
https://www.duolingo.com/skill/la/Introduction/tips-and-notes
Translation of Names
A little convention: we will not accept translations of names as alternatives in this course. Marcus's name is Marcus, not Mark, and Stephanus is not Stephen or Steven.
No, because names are not translated. Your name is your name. Stephen is a different person from Stephanus.
I have many friends with variants of this name - Stephanus / Stephen / Steven / Stefan....they are all different people who do not change the spelling of their names when they travel to countries with another language.
An Example: My aunts name is Marianne (German). She wouldn't like to be called Mary Anne.
Again, habeo, habere, habui, habitus means to have, hold, possess, consider regard. If you're using that verb, the sentence should read "Stephanus considers himself well," which gramatically makes more sense since the reflexive pronoun "se" (himself, herself, itself, theirselves) is included.
Ok Duolingo. If my answer was not acceptable as I put Stephanos se bene habet meaning literally stephanos is feeling unwell . I got flagged up fir being incorrect. My only mustake was the spelling of Stephanus as I put an o in place of the u. I understand that proper nouns ie names arent meant to be translated. But Marce is acceptable instead of Marcelus . Why the contradiction? If one proper noun is acceptable in a different form then why not all ?
Put very simply, names are like nouns - they change endings depending on the job they are doing in the sentence.
Stephanus and Marcus (and Livia and Corinna) are the subjects of the sentences. Marce and Stephane are the vocative forms ie the forms used when the person is being addressed directly.
The only reason Livia and Corinna don't change is because they are treated as feminine nouns and, for those, the vocative is the same -a ending as when they are the subject of the sentence.
Hope this helps
It is not a contradiction. It is a rule of Latin grammar that Duolingo is trying to teach you.
Stephanus and Marcus are the nominative forms of the names (when they are the subject of the sentence). Stephane and Marce are the vocative forms of the names (when you are addressing them directly). But that's how it works with masculine words (and as names of men, they are treated grammatically masculine).
With Corinna and Livia, since they are names of women and therefore treated grammatically feminine, the grammar works a little differently and the vocative form is the same as the nominative form.
Marce is a declined form (object form? - not sure) of Marcus, not a version of Marcelus. Stephanos may have been a typo on your part, but when it comes to names, Duo will have a hard time recognising that.
Marce is the vocative, not the accusative. You use it when you are directly addressing him (Hello, Marcus). Direct object is accusative (I hit Marcus), indirect object is dative (I threw the ball to Marcus).
"Marcus" is 2nd declension masculine. Accusative would be "Marcum".
http://dcc.dickinson.edu/sites/all/files/Case_endings_5_decl_1_4.jpg
- 1471
"Marce" is the vocative form of the name "Marcus". It is not a random variation, but the predictable result when you apply the Latin grammar. Since English doesn't use grammatical cases, we revert back to the standard nominative spelling for the name in the English sentence.
