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  5. "Multae universitates Romae s…

"Multae universitates Romae sunt."

Translation:Many universities are in Rome.

August 27, 2019



Why is 'multae' used here instead of 'multi'?


Universitas (and all words ending in -itas) is a feminine word. Multi is for masculine plural words, multae for feminine plural words (in the nominative case).


Holy macron!

  • 905

There are a lot of universities in Rome. Reported 09.23.2019


Yeah, I agree this is a much better English translation. "Many universities in Rome" isn't really a sentence. You could say: There are many universites in Rome.


That translation is also accepted


I agree - the suggested translation is less good/accurate. "Many universities are in Rome" is different, really; Out of X universities, many are in Rome, while some are elsewhere.


Why isn't the preposition "in" used? Is it optional because "Roma" is already conjugated to the dative, like the way "ego" is optional when the verb is conjugated to the 1st person, or is it because "Romae" is an adverb like "domi" ?


In this sentence Romae is not a dative but a locative. The locative case is only used with names of towns (and a few other nouns), and by itself it signifies "in" (without motion): Romae "in Rome".

If you want say "in" with another type of noun, you must use in and the ablative case (not the dative): in urbe "in the town".


Thank you very much. I have been learning Latin from a couple books and have not got to the locative case yet. Was pretty confused why "the dative" was being used haha.


Be careful, it's not "conjugated", only verbs are conjugated, there are as many conjugation in Latin than personal pronouns ranks (1st personal plural, etc...)

For words, the ending changes because of declension, and there are 6 Latin cases. They don't change according to the subject or personal pronoun, but according to the grammatical role in the sentence.


Not only "ego", but all personal pronouns subject are optional, or it mean you insist on the "who".


You can interpret it as a dative as well : "Many universities belong to Rome" -> "Rome has many universities"


Mujilen has it exact.


Why is "there are many universitys in rome" incorrect?


Other than the fact that it should be spelled “universities,” it is correct.


I had the same sentence earlier with "in America" rather than in Rome - I put sunt at the end of the sentence and it was marked wrong, correct answer had sunt in the middle... What are the rules for this?


Either is grammatically correct.

That said, a linking verb like this does often occur between the two words it’s linking.


``At Rome'' should be perfectly acceptable.


The locative denotes location and both “in” and “at” accomplish this in English.


Why would the answer "There are many universities in Rome." be incorrect?


It should be fine. Report it.


Isn't the pronunciation wrong? You shouldn't say romAe nor multAe, right? RomE and MultE.


Im not sure what you are asking, but it sounds fine to me.

The diphthong “ae” sounds like a long “i” in English as in “sight” or “write.”


Isn't the "ae" group usually, if not all the time, pronounced "eh" ? As the "e" in "met" ?


It is the case in some national pronunciations, but this course uses a reconstructed ancient Latin pronunciation where ae is (most of the time) a diphtong, that is to say an a and an e in the same syllable. The speakers reproduce it correctly.


if "Romae sunt" is "are in Rome" how would you say "are Roman"?


Well it depends on “what” is “Roman.”

“There are many Roman universities” would be “sunt multae Romanae universitates.”

[deactivated user]

    The pronunciation gives me the creeps: Liwia, uniwersitates etc...


    How do we pronounce "v"? Like [w] in English?


    Why is it Multae and not Multi?


    Is it because universitates is feminine?


    Yes. The adjective needs to agree with and down it modifies in case, number, and gender.


    why does the verb sunt go at the end sometimes and then in an almost identical statement go in the middle, and it's wrong if it's in the wrong place? I don't understand.


    The verb has no fixed place (so no wrong place). It tends to be at the end of a sentence, but it can also be elsewhere.


    Can 'multae' also mean several, or is it only many?


    Well it means “multiple” really.

    Context in a sentence would help you determine if the author was trying to emphasize that there were quite a lot of some thing or just some random plural number.

    There are other words to be used to be more specific. “Several” is “nonnulli, -ae, -a” which is literally “not none.”


    So in this sentence, with an unknown number of universities, several isn't an appropriate translation? Many just sounds awkward to me, and I was curious if several was acceptable and I should report it or if it was wrong.


    I wouldn't translate "multus, -a, -um" as several unless I had a lot of context to make that decision. In fact, I can't think of ever translating that way.


    Since English is not my native language I do not know why "many" seems awkward to you, but multi actually means "many", "several" is complures (non nulli rather means "a few").


    I put "Multae universitas Romae sunt". Shouldn't that be accepted as a typo?


    Your change in spelling made it a singular form instead of a plural form.


    Why us 'Rome has many universities' not correct for the translation?


    Because that translation changes the case of “Rome” and “many universities” and uses a different verb.

    It might stay relatively close to the idea of the sentence, though it does stress him. It also changes the vocabulary and miss uses the grammar. In a language course, early on it is often useful to stick to a more literal translation.


    I guess the Yank speakers are doing the best they can with the pronunciation, but it's grating on the ears, nevertheless.


    Why wouldn't the englush translation have 'are there'?


    Why wouldn't it be 'are there'?

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