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  5. "Filiae tuae in urbe dormiunt…

"Filiae tuae in urbe dormiunt."

Translation:Your daughters sleep in the city.

August 27, 2019



This sounds mildly like an insult... o.o'

Like right up there with suggesting somebody's mother wears footwear typically given to the military.


I thought the same thing. I was like "that's a little spicy..."


I didn't get the double entendre, can you explain for non natives as me?


Sort of like a passive-aggressive comment a in-law would make lol


I have so much trouble understanding the recordings. I couldn't tell if it was filii tui or filiae tuae.


Is city "urbs" or "urbe"? I am confused.


"Urbs" is the "normal" noun. It means it's the form of the noun, when it's used outside of a sentence.
And it's also the form of the noun when it's the subject of a sentence (=nominative case, nominative form if you prefer).

"in" require the case to be "urbe". If you see the declension table, you will see that "urbe" is the ablative of "urbs".

Because in + ablative, is used in Latin to indicate a static location, without a move. They sleep in the city, so they won't move, so we can use a "static ablative".


Can you explain why "sleeping at home" or being "in Rome" require no preposition but sleeping "in the city" does? Thank you.


Names of towns, cities, small islands and a very few other words including domus use the locative case instead of in with the ablative case. You can find a good explanation of the locative case at the bottom of this page.


Thank you so much.


So if I use "urbs" in "Filiae tuae in urbe dormiunt", am I correct?


"Urbe" is in ablative and is used with a preposition, "urbs" is the nominative form that can be also used as a locative.


Latin has many different cases, urbs does mean city, as well as urbe does. urbs is the Nominative singular form, while urbe - as far as i remember - is the Ablative singular.


It depends on the context. Latin declines, which means the ending changes depending on the case. http://www.cultus.hk/Latin_vocab/noun3/urbs.html


I have a feeling this is not a very polite thing to suggest.


Is "ae" a diphthong or a monothong? My teacher told me, it's similar to "ä" from a few germanic languages.


krtzrovavrt, I believe these two vowels are/were pronounced separately, something called «hiatus» in linguistics. Examples in Indo-European languages include: the Spanish «maestro», and the French «naïf». It's definitely an aspect of Latin pronunciation that one should be aware of, although many people simply render it as a diphthong.


I've only heard it referred to as a diphthong by instructors, , but it's possible that they were simplifying for me.

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