Shouldn't 'solus' be replaced by an adverb ('solamente', if I'm not mistaken)? Or does the rule not apply when describing the state of the object in relation to the verb?
"solamente" is a Spanish word. I don't think it exists in Latin, but I'm not sure at all
The question remains though why the adjective 'solus' is used here rather than the adverb (which would then be 'sole', I guess?).
I think the Romans tend to use adjectives as adverbs. Another way to think about this is that they prefer to describe the subject rather than the verb when possible. I'm not an expert, though.
You're right! Adverbs formed with -mente are not a feature of classical Latin. Instead they are formed with -iter or -e.
We won't say "ego", so say "me!" ?
I though "meum" was a personal pronoun.
meus (feminine mea, neuter meum); first/second-declension determiner
(possessive) my, mine
Mitte hunc meā grātiā.
Let this man alone for my sake.